1. Tell me about yourself:
The most often asked question in interviews. You need to have a short statement prepared in your mind. Be careful that it does not sound rehearsed. Limit it to work-related items unless instructed otherwise. Talk about things you have done and jobs you have held that relate to the position you are interviewing for. Start with the item farthest back and work up to the present.
2. Why did you leave your last job?
Stay positive regardless of the circumstances. Never refer to a major problem with management and never speak ill of supervisors, co- workers or the organization. If you do, you will be the one looking bad. Keep smiling and talk about leaving for a positive reason such as an opportunity, a chance to do something special or other forward- looking reasons.
3. What experience do you have in this field?
Speak about specifics that relate to the position you are applying for. If you do not have specific experience, get as close as you can.
4. Do you consider yourself successful?
You should always answer yes and briefly explain why. A good explanation is that you have set goals, and you have met some and are on track to achieve the others.
5. What do co-workers say about you?
Be prepared with a quote or two from co-workers. Either a specific statement or a paraphrase will work. Jill Clark, a co-worker at Smith Company, always said I was the hardest workers she had ever known. It is as powerful as Jill having said it at the interview herself.
6. What do you know about this organization?
This question is one reason to do some research on the organization before the interview. Find out where they have been and where they are going. What are the current issues and who are the major players?
7. What have you done to improve your knowledge in the last year?
Try to include improvement activities that relate to the job. A wide variety of activities can be mentioned as positive self-improvement. Have some good ones handy to mention.
8. Are you applying for other jobs?
Be honest but do not spend a lot of time in this area. Keep the focus on this job and what you can do for this organization. Anything else is a distraction.
9. Why do you want to work for this organization?
This may take some thought and certainly, should be based on the research you have done on the organization. Sincerity is extremely important here and will easily be sensed. Relate it to your long-term career goals.
10. Do you know anyone who works for us?
Be aware of the policy on relatives working for the organization. This can affect your answer even though they asked about friends not relatives. Be careful to mention a friend only if they are well thought of.
11. What kind of salary do you need?
A loaded question. A nasty little game that you will probably lose if you answer first. So, do not answer it. Instead, say something like, That's a tough question. Can you tell me the range for this position? In most cases, the interviewer, taken off guard, will tell you. If not, say that it can depend on the details of the job. Then give a wide range.
12. Are you a team player?
You are, of course, a team player. Be sure to have examples ready. Specifics that show you often perform for the good of the team rather than for yourself are good evidence of your team attitude. Do not brag, just say it in a matter-of-fact tone. This is a key point.
13. How long would you expect to work for us if hired?
Specifics here are not good. Something like this should work: I'd like it to be a long time. Or As long as we both feel I'm doing a good job.
14. Have you ever had to fire anyone? How did you feel about that?
This is serious. Do not make light of it or in any way seem like you like to fire people. At the same time, you will do it when it is the right thing to do. When it comes to the organization versus the individual who has created a harmful situation, you will protect the organization. Remember firing is not the same as layoff or reduction in force.
15. What is your philosophy towards work?
The interviewer is not looking for a long or flowery dissertation here. Do you have strong feelings that the job gets done? Yes. That's the type of answer that works best here. Short and positive, showing a benefit to the organization.
16. If you had enough money to retire right now, would you?
Answer yes if you would. But since you need to work, this is the type of work you prefer. Do not say yes if you do not mean it.
17. Have you ever been asked to leave a position?
If you have not, say no. If you have, be honest, brief and avoid saying negative things about the people or organization involved.
18. Explain how you would be an asset to this organization.
You should be anxious for this question. It gives you a chance to highlight your best points as they relate to the position being discussed. Give a little advance thought to this relationship.
19. Why should we hire you?
Point out how your assets meet what the organization needs. Do not mention any other candidates to make a comparison.
20. Tell me about a suggestion you have made.
Have a good one ready. Be sure and use a suggestion that was accepted and was then considered successful. One related to the type of work applied for is a real plus.
21. What irritates you about co-workers?
This is a trap question. Think real hard but fail to come up with anything that irritates you. A short statement that you seem to get along with folks is great.
22. What is your greatest strength?
Numerous answers are good, just stay positive. A few good examples: Your ability to prioritize, Your problem-solving skills, Your ability to work under pressure, Your ability to focus on projects, Your professional expertise, Your leadership skills, Your positive attitude
23. Tell me about your dream job.
Stay away from a specific job. You cannot win. If you say the job you are contending for is it, you strain credibility. If you say another job is it, you plant the suspicion that you will be dissatisfied with this position if hired. The best is to stay genetic and say something like: A job where I love the work, like the people, can contribute and can't wait to get to work.
24. Why do you think you would do well at this job?
Give several reasons and include skills, experience and interest.
25. What are you looking for in a job?
See answer # 23
26. What kind of person would you refuse to work with?
Do not be trivial. It would take disloyalty to the organization, violence or lawbreaking to get you to object. Minor objections will label you as a whiner.
27. What is more important to you: the money or the work?
Money is always important, but the work is the most important. There is no better answer.
28. What would your previous supervisor say your strongest point is?
There are numerous good possibilities:
Loyalty, Energy, Positive attitude, Leadership, Team player, Expertise, Initiative, Patience, Hard work, Creativity, Problem solver
29. Tell me about a problem you had with a supervisor.
Biggest trap of all. This is a test to see if you will speak ill of your boss. If you fall for it and tell about a problem with a former boss, you may well below the interview right there. Stay positive and develop a poor memory about any trouble with a supervisor.
30. What has disappointed you about a job?
Don't get trivial or negative. Safe areas are few but can include:
Not enough of a challenge. You were laid off in a reduction Company did not win a contract, which would have given you more responsibility.
31. Tell me about your ability to work under pressure.
You may say that you thrive under certain types of pressure. Give an example that relates to the type of position applied for.
32. Do your skills match this job or another job more closely?
Probably this one. Do not give fuel to the suspicion that you may want another job more than this one.
33. What motivates you to do your best on the job?
This is a personal trait that only you can say, but good examples are: Challenge, Achievement, Recognition
34. Are you willing to work overtime? Nights? Weekends?
This is up to you. Be totally honest.
35. How would you know you were successful on this job?
Several ways are good measures:
You set high standards for yourself and meet them. Your outcomes are a success.Your boss tell you that you are successful
36. Would you be willing to relocate if required?
You should be clear on this with your family prior to the interview if you think there is a chance it may come up. Do not say yes just to get the job if the real answer is no. This can create a lot of problems later on in your career. Be honest at this point and save yourself uture grief.
37. Are you willing to put the interests of the organization ahead of your own?
This is a straight loyalty and dedication question. Do not worry about the deep ethical and philosophical implications. Just say yes.
38. Describe your management style.
Try to avoid labels. Some of the more common labels, like progressive, salesman or consensus, can have several meanings or descriptions depending on which management expert you listen to. The situational style is safe, because it says you will manage according to the situation, instead of one size fits all.
39. What have you learned from mistakes on the job?
Here you have to come up with something or you strain credibility. Make it small, well intentioned mistake with a positive lesson learned. An example would be working too far ahead of colleagues on a project and thus throwing coordination off.
40. Do you have any blind spots?
Trick question. If you know about blind spots, they are no longer blind spots. Do not reveal any personal areas of concern here. Let them do their own discovery on your bad points. Do not hand it to them.
41. If you were hiring a person for this job, what would you look for?
Be careful to mention traits that are needed and that you have.
42. Do you think you are overqualified for this position?
Regardless of your qualifications, state that you are very well qualified for the position.
43. How do you propose to compensate for your lack of experience?
First, if you have experience that the interviewer does not know about, bring that up: Then, point out (if true) that you are a hard working quick learner.
44. What qualities do you look for in a boss?
Be generic and positive. Safe qualities are knowledgeable, a sense of humor, fair, loyal to subordinates and holder of high standards. All bosses think they have these traits.
45. Tell me about a time when you helped resolve a dispute between others.
Pick a specific incident. Concentrate on your problem solving technique and not the dispute you settled.
46. What position do you prefer on a team working on a project?
Be honest. If you are comfortable in different roles, point that out.
47. Describe your work ethic.
Emphasize benefits to the organization. Things like, determination to get the job done and work hard but enjoy your work are good.
48. What has been your biggest professional disappointment?
Be sure that you refer to something that was beyond your control. Show acceptance and no negative feelings.
49. Tell me about the most fun you have had on the job.
Talk about having fun by accomplishing something for the organization.
50. Do you have any questions for me?
Always have some questions prepared. Questions prepared where you will be an asset to the organization are good. How soon will I be able to be productive? and What type of projects will I be able to assist on? are examples.
Thursday, November 19, 2009
Monday, November 16, 2009
TOP MBA COLLEGES IN INDIA
Name of institute Location and Website
Indian Institute of Management Ahmedabad www.iimahd.ernet.in
Indian Institute of Management Bangalore www.iimb.ernet.in
Indian Institute of Management Kolkata www.iimcal.ac.in
Indian Institute of Management Kozhikode www.iimk.ac.in
Indian Institute of Management Indore www.iimidr.ac.in
Indian Institute of Management Lucknow www.iiml.ac.in
Xavier Labour Research Institute (XLRI) Jamshedpur www.xlri.edu
Faculty of Management Studies, Delhi University (FMS) New Delhi www.fms.edu
Jamnalal Bajaj Institute of Management Studies Mumbai www.jbims.edu
Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies Mumbai www.nmims.edu
SP Jain Institute of Management & Research Mumbai www.spjimr.org
Institute of Management Technology Ghaziabad www.imt.edu
Management Development Institute Gurgaon www.mdi.ac.in
Xavier Institute of Management Bhubaneshwar www.ximb.ac.in
International Management Institute New Delhi www.imi.edu
FORE School of Management New Delhi www.fsm.ac.in
Symbiosis Institute of Business Management Pune www.sibm.edu
Symbiosis Centre for Management and HRD Pune www.scmhrd.edu
Indian Institute of Forest Management Bhopal www.iifm.org
Indian Institute of Foreign Trade New Delhi www.iift.edu
Tata Institute of Social Sciences Mumbai www.tiss.edu
Institute of Rural Management Anand (Gujarat) www.irma.ac.in
Mudra Institute of Communications Ahmedabad www.mica-india.net
National Institute of Fashion Technology New Delhi www.niftindia.com
Bharatidasan Institute of Management Tituchirapalli www.bim.edu
National Institute of Industrial Engineering Mumbai www.nitie.edu
Indian Institute of Technology - school of Management Mumbai www.iitb.ac.in/~som
Indian Institute of Technology department of Management Studies New Delhi www.iitdmba.org
Indian Institute of Technology - Vinod gupta school of Management,Kharagpur www.som.iitkgp.ernet.in
Indian Institute of Management Ahmedabad www.iimahd.ernet.in
Indian Institute of Management Bangalore www.iimb.ernet.in
Indian Institute of Management Kolkata www.iimcal.ac.in
Indian Institute of Management Kozhikode www.iimk.ac.in
Indian Institute of Management Indore www.iimidr.ac.in
Indian Institute of Management Lucknow www.iiml.ac.in
Xavier Labour Research Institute (XLRI) Jamshedpur www.xlri.edu
Faculty of Management Studies, Delhi University (FMS) New Delhi www.fms.edu
Jamnalal Bajaj Institute of Management Studies Mumbai www.jbims.edu
Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies Mumbai www.nmims.edu
SP Jain Institute of Management & Research Mumbai www.spjimr.org
Institute of Management Technology Ghaziabad www.imt.edu
Management Development Institute Gurgaon www.mdi.ac.in
Xavier Institute of Management Bhubaneshwar www.ximb.ac.in
International Management Institute New Delhi www.imi.edu
FORE School of Management New Delhi www.fsm.ac.in
Symbiosis Institute of Business Management Pune www.sibm.edu
Symbiosis Centre for Management and HRD Pune www.scmhrd.edu
Indian Institute of Forest Management Bhopal www.iifm.org
Indian Institute of Foreign Trade New Delhi www.iift.edu
Tata Institute of Social Sciences Mumbai www.tiss.edu
Institute of Rural Management Anand (Gujarat) www.irma.ac.in
Mudra Institute of Communications Ahmedabad www.mica-india.net
National Institute of Fashion Technology New Delhi www.niftindia.com
Bharatidasan Institute of Management Tituchirapalli www.bim.edu
National Institute of Industrial Engineering Mumbai www.nitie.edu
Indian Institute of Technology - school of Management Mumbai www.iitb.ac.in/~som
Indian Institute of Technology department of Management Studies New Delhi www.iitdmba.org
Indian Institute of Technology - Vinod gupta school of Management,Kharagpur www.som.iitkgp.ernet.in
TOEFL
TOEFL
The Test of English as a Foreign Language (or TOEFL, pronounced "toe-full") evaluates the ability of an individual to use and understand English in an academic setting. It sometimes is an admission requirement for non-native English speakers at many English-speaking colleges and universities.
Additionally, institutions such as government agencies, licensing bodies, businesses, or scholarship programs may require this test. A TOEFL score is valid for two years and then will no longer be officially reported since a candidate's language proficiency could have significantly changed since the date of the test. Colleges and universities usually consider only the most recent TOEFL score.
Policies governing the TOEFL program are formulated with advice from a 16-member board. Board members are affiliated with undergraduate and graduate schools, 2-year institutions and public or private agencies with an interest in international education. Other members are specialists in the field of English as a foreign or second language.
The TOEFL Committee of Examiners is composed of 12 specialists in linguistics, language testing, teaching or research. Its main responsibility is to advise on TOEFL test content. The committee helps ensure the test is a valid measure of English language proficiency reflecting current trends and methodology.
Internet-Based Test
Since its introduction in late 2005, the Internet-Based test (iBT) has progressively replaced both the computer-based (CBT) and paper-based (PBT) tests, although paper-based testing is still used in select areas. The iBT has been introduced in phases, with the United States, Canada, France, Germany, and Italy in 2005 and the rest of the world in 2006, with test centers added regularly. The CBT was discontinued in September 2006 and these scores are no longer valid.
Although initially, the demand for test seats was higher than availability, and candidates had to wait for months, it is now possible to take the test within one to four weeks in most countries.[2] The four-hour test consists of four sections, each measuring one of the basic language skills (while some tasks require integrating multiple skills) and all tasks focus on language used in an academic, higher-education environment. Note-taking is allowed during the iBT. The test cannot be taken more than once a week.
1.Reading
The Reading section consists of 3–5 passages, each approximately 700 words in length and questions about the passages. The passages are on academic topics; they are the kind of material that might be found in an undergraduate university textbook. Passages require understanding of rhetorical functions such as cause-effect, compare-contrast and argumentation. Students answer questions about main ideas, details, inferences, essential information, sentence insertion, vocabulary, rhetorical purpose and overall ideas. New types of questions in the iBT require filling out tables or completing summaries. Prior knowledge of the subject under discussion is not necessary to come to the correct answer.
2.Listening
The Listening section consists of 6 passages, 3–5 minutes in length and questions about the passages. These passages include 2 student conversations and 4 academic lectures or discussions. A conversation involves 2 speakers, a student and either a professor or a campus service provider. A lecture is a self-contained portion of an academic lecture, which may involve student participation and does not assume specialized background knowledge in the subject area. Each conversation and lecture stimulus is heard only once. Test takers may take notes while they listen and they may refer to their notes when they answer the questions. Each conversation is associated with 5 questions and each lecture with 6. The questions are meant to measure the ability to understand main ideas, important details, implications, relationships between ideas, organization of information, speaker purpose and speaker attitude.
3.Speaking
The Speaking section consists of 6 tasks, 2 independent tasks and 4 integrated tasks. In the 2 independent tasks, test takers answer opinion questions on familiar topics. They are evaluated on their ability to speak spontaneously and convey their ideas clearly and coherently. In 2 of the integrated tasks, test takers read a short passage, listen to an academic course lecture or a conversation about campus life and answer a question by combining appropriate information from the text and the talk. In the 2 remaining integrated tasks, test takers listen to an academic course lecture or a conversation about campus life and then respond to a question about what they heard. In the integrated tasks, test takers are evaluated on their ability to appropriately synthesize and effectively convey information from the reading and listening material. Test takers may take notes as they read and listen and may use their notes to help prepare their responses. Test takers are given a short preparation time before they have to begin speaking.
4.Writing
The Writing section measures a test taker's ability to write in an academic setting and consists of 2 tasks, 1 integrated task and 1 independent task. In the integrated task, test takers read a passage on an academic topic and then listen to a speaker discuss the same topic. The test taker will then write a summary about the important points in the listening passage and explain how these relate to the key points of the reading passage. In the independent task, test takers must write an essay that states, explains and supports their opinion on an issue, supporting their opinions or choices, rather than simply listing personal preferences or choices.
Task Description Approx. time
READING 3–5 passages, each containing 12–14 questions 60–100 minutes
LISTENING 6–9 passages, each containing 5–6 questions 60–90 minutes
BREAK 10 minutes
SPEAKING 6 tasks and 6 questions 20 minutes
WRITING 2 tasks and 2 questions 55 minutes
It should be noted that one of the sections of the test will include extra, uncounted material. Educational Testing Service includes extra material in order to pilot test questions for future test forms. When test-takers are given a longer section, they should give equal effort to all of the questions because they do not know which question will count and which will be considered extra. For example, if there are four reading passages instead of three, then three of those passages will count and one of the passages will not be counted. Any of the four passages could be the uncounted one.
Paper-Based Test
In areas where the internet-based test is not available, a paper-based test (PBT) is given. Test takers must register in advance either online or by using the registration form provided in the Supplemental Paper TOEFL Bulletin. They should register in advance of the given deadlines to ensure a place because the test centers have limited seating and may fill up early. Tests are administered on fixed dates 6 times each year.
The test is 3 hours long and all test sections can be taken on the same day. Students can take the test as many times as they wish. However, colleges and universities usually consider only the most recent score.
1.Listening (30–40 minutes)
The Listening section consists of 3 parts. The first one contains 30 questions about short conversations. The second part has 8 questions about longer conversations. The last part asks 12 questions about lectures or talks.
2.Structure and Written Expression (25 minutes)
The Structure and Written Expression section has 15 exercises of completing sentences correctly and 25 exercises of identifying errors.
3.Reading Comprehension (55 minutes)
The Reading Comprehension section has 50 questions about reading passages.
4.Writing (30 minutes)
The Writing section is one essay with 250–300 words in average.
Test Score
Internet-Based Test
The iBT version of the TOEFL test is scored on a scale of 0 to 120 points.
Each of the four sections (Reading, Listening, Speaking, and Writing) receives a scaled score from 0 to 30. The scaled scores from the four sections are added together to determine the total score.
Speaking is initially given a score of 0 to 4, and writing is initially given a score of 0 to 5. These scores are converted to scaled scores of 0 to 30.
Paper-Based Test
The final PBT score ranges between 310 and 677 and is based on three subscores: Listening (31–68), Structure (31–68), and Reading (31–67). Unlike the CBT, the score of the Writing section (referred to as the Test of Written English, TWE) is not part of the final score; instead, it is reported separately on a scale of 0–6.
The score test takers receive on the Listening, Structure and Reading parts of the TOEFL test is not the percentage of correct answers. The score is converted to take into account the fact that some tests are more difficult than others. The converted scores correct these differences. Therefore, the converted score is a more accurate reflection of the ability than the correct answer score is.
Most colleges use TOEFL scores as only one factor in their admission process. A sampling of required TOEFL admissions scores shows that a total score of 74.2 for undergraduate admissions and 82.6 for graduate admissions may be required. It is recommended that students check with their prospective institutions directly to understand TOEFL admissions requirements.[3]
ETS has released tables to convert between iBT, CBT and PBT scores.
Registration
The first step in the registration process is to obtain a copy of the TOEFL Information Bulletin. This bulletin can be obtained by downloading it or ordering it from the TOEFL website.
From the bulletin, it is possible to determine when and where the iBT version of the TOEFL test will be given.
Procedures for completing the registration form and submitting it are listed in the TOEFL Information Bulletin. These procedures must be followed exactly.
References
1.^ Stanford University, Memorial Resolution: Charles A. Ferguson (1921-1998), May 1999
2.^ TOEFL iBT Locations and Dates
3.^ Required TOEFL Scores for College Admissions, Test-Guide.com, Retrieved on March 09.
Further reading
Bailey, Kathleen M., "Washback in Language Testing", TOEFL Monograph Series, Educational Testing Service, June 1999
See also
English as a Foreign or Second Language (EFSL)
International English Language Testing System (IELTS)
International Student Admission Test (ISAT)
List of admissions tests
National Accreditation Authority for Translators and Interpreters (NAATI)
Teaching English as a foreign language (TEFL)
Test of English for International Communication (TOEIC)
PTE Academic Pearson Test of English Academic
Standardised test
UBELT University of Bath English Language Test.
University of Cambridge ESOL examination
LNAT
The Test of English as a Foreign Language (or TOEFL, pronounced "toe-full") evaluates the ability of an individual to use and understand English in an academic setting. It sometimes is an admission requirement for non-native English speakers at many English-speaking colleges and universities.
Additionally, institutions such as government agencies, licensing bodies, businesses, or scholarship programs may require this test. A TOEFL score is valid for two years and then will no longer be officially reported since a candidate's language proficiency could have significantly changed since the date of the test. Colleges and universities usually consider only the most recent TOEFL score.
Policies governing the TOEFL program are formulated with advice from a 16-member board. Board members are affiliated with undergraduate and graduate schools, 2-year institutions and public or private agencies with an interest in international education. Other members are specialists in the field of English as a foreign or second language.
The TOEFL Committee of Examiners is composed of 12 specialists in linguistics, language testing, teaching or research. Its main responsibility is to advise on TOEFL test content. The committee helps ensure the test is a valid measure of English language proficiency reflecting current trends and methodology.
Internet-Based Test
Since its introduction in late 2005, the Internet-Based test (iBT) has progressively replaced both the computer-based (CBT) and paper-based (PBT) tests, although paper-based testing is still used in select areas. The iBT has been introduced in phases, with the United States, Canada, France, Germany, and Italy in 2005 and the rest of the world in 2006, with test centers added regularly. The CBT was discontinued in September 2006 and these scores are no longer valid.
Although initially, the demand for test seats was higher than availability, and candidates had to wait for months, it is now possible to take the test within one to four weeks in most countries.[2] The four-hour test consists of four sections, each measuring one of the basic language skills (while some tasks require integrating multiple skills) and all tasks focus on language used in an academic, higher-education environment. Note-taking is allowed during the iBT. The test cannot be taken more than once a week.
1.Reading
The Reading section consists of 3–5 passages, each approximately 700 words in length and questions about the passages. The passages are on academic topics; they are the kind of material that might be found in an undergraduate university textbook. Passages require understanding of rhetorical functions such as cause-effect, compare-contrast and argumentation. Students answer questions about main ideas, details, inferences, essential information, sentence insertion, vocabulary, rhetorical purpose and overall ideas. New types of questions in the iBT require filling out tables or completing summaries. Prior knowledge of the subject under discussion is not necessary to come to the correct answer.
2.Listening
The Listening section consists of 6 passages, 3–5 minutes in length and questions about the passages. These passages include 2 student conversations and 4 academic lectures or discussions. A conversation involves 2 speakers, a student and either a professor or a campus service provider. A lecture is a self-contained portion of an academic lecture, which may involve student participation and does not assume specialized background knowledge in the subject area. Each conversation and lecture stimulus is heard only once. Test takers may take notes while they listen and they may refer to their notes when they answer the questions. Each conversation is associated with 5 questions and each lecture with 6. The questions are meant to measure the ability to understand main ideas, important details, implications, relationships between ideas, organization of information, speaker purpose and speaker attitude.
3.Speaking
The Speaking section consists of 6 tasks, 2 independent tasks and 4 integrated tasks. In the 2 independent tasks, test takers answer opinion questions on familiar topics. They are evaluated on their ability to speak spontaneously and convey their ideas clearly and coherently. In 2 of the integrated tasks, test takers read a short passage, listen to an academic course lecture or a conversation about campus life and answer a question by combining appropriate information from the text and the talk. In the 2 remaining integrated tasks, test takers listen to an academic course lecture or a conversation about campus life and then respond to a question about what they heard. In the integrated tasks, test takers are evaluated on their ability to appropriately synthesize and effectively convey information from the reading and listening material. Test takers may take notes as they read and listen and may use their notes to help prepare their responses. Test takers are given a short preparation time before they have to begin speaking.
4.Writing
The Writing section measures a test taker's ability to write in an academic setting and consists of 2 tasks, 1 integrated task and 1 independent task. In the integrated task, test takers read a passage on an academic topic and then listen to a speaker discuss the same topic. The test taker will then write a summary about the important points in the listening passage and explain how these relate to the key points of the reading passage. In the independent task, test takers must write an essay that states, explains and supports their opinion on an issue, supporting their opinions or choices, rather than simply listing personal preferences or choices.
Task Description Approx. time
READING 3–5 passages, each containing 12–14 questions 60–100 minutes
LISTENING 6–9 passages, each containing 5–6 questions 60–90 minutes
BREAK 10 minutes
SPEAKING 6 tasks and 6 questions 20 minutes
WRITING 2 tasks and 2 questions 55 minutes
It should be noted that one of the sections of the test will include extra, uncounted material. Educational Testing Service includes extra material in order to pilot test questions for future test forms. When test-takers are given a longer section, they should give equal effort to all of the questions because they do not know which question will count and which will be considered extra. For example, if there are four reading passages instead of three, then three of those passages will count and one of the passages will not be counted. Any of the four passages could be the uncounted one.
Paper-Based Test
In areas where the internet-based test is not available, a paper-based test (PBT) is given. Test takers must register in advance either online or by using the registration form provided in the Supplemental Paper TOEFL Bulletin. They should register in advance of the given deadlines to ensure a place because the test centers have limited seating and may fill up early. Tests are administered on fixed dates 6 times each year.
The test is 3 hours long and all test sections can be taken on the same day. Students can take the test as many times as they wish. However, colleges and universities usually consider only the most recent score.
1.Listening (30–40 minutes)
The Listening section consists of 3 parts. The first one contains 30 questions about short conversations. The second part has 8 questions about longer conversations. The last part asks 12 questions about lectures or talks.
2.Structure and Written Expression (25 minutes)
The Structure and Written Expression section has 15 exercises of completing sentences correctly and 25 exercises of identifying errors.
3.Reading Comprehension (55 minutes)
The Reading Comprehension section has 50 questions about reading passages.
4.Writing (30 minutes)
The Writing section is one essay with 250–300 words in average.
Test Score
Internet-Based Test
The iBT version of the TOEFL test is scored on a scale of 0 to 120 points.
Each of the four sections (Reading, Listening, Speaking, and Writing) receives a scaled score from 0 to 30. The scaled scores from the four sections are added together to determine the total score.
Speaking is initially given a score of 0 to 4, and writing is initially given a score of 0 to 5. These scores are converted to scaled scores of 0 to 30.
Paper-Based Test
The final PBT score ranges between 310 and 677 and is based on three subscores: Listening (31–68), Structure (31–68), and Reading (31–67). Unlike the CBT, the score of the Writing section (referred to as the Test of Written English, TWE) is not part of the final score; instead, it is reported separately on a scale of 0–6.
The score test takers receive on the Listening, Structure and Reading parts of the TOEFL test is not the percentage of correct answers. The score is converted to take into account the fact that some tests are more difficult than others. The converted scores correct these differences. Therefore, the converted score is a more accurate reflection of the ability than the correct answer score is.
Most colleges use TOEFL scores as only one factor in their admission process. A sampling of required TOEFL admissions scores shows that a total score of 74.2 for undergraduate admissions and 82.6 for graduate admissions may be required. It is recommended that students check with their prospective institutions directly to understand TOEFL admissions requirements.[3]
ETS has released tables to convert between iBT, CBT and PBT scores.
Registration
The first step in the registration process is to obtain a copy of the TOEFL Information Bulletin. This bulletin can be obtained by downloading it or ordering it from the TOEFL website.
From the bulletin, it is possible to determine when and where the iBT version of the TOEFL test will be given.
Procedures for completing the registration form and submitting it are listed in the TOEFL Information Bulletin. These procedures must be followed exactly.
References
1.^ Stanford University, Memorial Resolution: Charles A. Ferguson (1921-1998), May 1999
2.^ TOEFL iBT Locations and Dates
3.^ Required TOEFL Scores for College Admissions, Test-Guide.com, Retrieved on March 09.
Further reading
Bailey, Kathleen M., "Washback in Language Testing", TOEFL Monograph Series, Educational Testing Service, June 1999
See also
English as a Foreign or Second Language (EFSL)
International English Language Testing System (IELTS)
International Student Admission Test (ISAT)
List of admissions tests
National Accreditation Authority for Translators and Interpreters (NAATI)
Teaching English as a foreign language (TEFL)
Test of English for International Communication (TOEIC)
PTE Academic Pearson Test of English Academic
Standardised test
UBELT University of Bath English Language Test.
University of Cambridge ESOL examination
LNAT
IELTS PATTERN
IELTS provides a profile of a candidate’s ability to use English. Candidates receive scores on a Band Scale from 1 to 9. A score is reported for each module of the test. The individual module scores are then averaged and rounded to produce an Overall Band Score according to a confidential band score conversion table. Overall Band Scores and Listening and Reading scores are reported in whole and half Bands; Writing and Speaking Band Scores are reported in whole Bands only.
Test Report Form
An example of the Test Report Form is shown on the right. Each module is reported separately as a Band Score, together with an Overall Band Score reported as a whole band or a half band. A descriptive statement giving a summary of the English of a candidate classified at each band level is provided below and is included on the reverse of the Test Report Form. The completed Test Report Form bears a centre stamp, a validation stamp, the candidate’s photograph and the authorized centre representative’s signature, and the authenticity of any Test Report Form can be verified by means of the Test Report Form Verification Service located at https://ielts.ucles.org.uk. British Council, IDP:IELTS Australia and Cambridge ESOL reserve the right to cancel any Test Report Form in the event of any attempt to tamper with or misuse the information contained in it.
IELTS band scores
The completed Test Report Form bears a centre stamp, a validation stamp, the candidate’s photograph and the authorized centre representative’s signature, and the authenticity of any Test Report Form can be verified by means of the Test Report Form Verification Service located at https://ielts.ucles.org.uk. British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia and Cambridge ESOL reserve the right to cancel any Test Report Form in the event of any attempt to tamper with or misuse the information contained in it.
In writing Module total score for Report writing is 3.6 and for Essay writing is 5.4. This score depends on your ability to write a report and an essay.
Similarly, speaking module covers total of 9 score. You will never get the score of speaking in decimal.
IELTS Test Results
» 9 Expert user
Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and fluent with complete understanding.
» 8 Very good user
Has fully operational command of the language with only occasional unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Misunderstandings may occur in unfamiliar situations. Handles complex detailed argumentation well.
» 7 Good user
Has operational command of the language, though with occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations. Generally handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning.
» 6 Competent user
Has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies, in appropriacies and misunderstandings. Can use and understand fairly complex language, particularly in familiar situations.
» 5 Modest user
Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though is likely to make many mistakes. Should be able to handle basic communication in own field.
» 4 Limited user
Basic competence is limited to familiar situations. Has frequent problems in understanding and expression. Is not able to use complex language.
» 3 Extremely limited user
Conveys and understands only general meaning in very familiar situations. Frequent breakdowns in communication occur.
» 2 Intermittent user
No real communication is possible except for the most basic information using isolated words or short formulae in familiar situations and to meet immediate needs. Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English.
» 1 Non user
Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few isolated words.
» 0 Did not attempt the test
No assessable information provided.
Interpretation of Results
Assessment of performance in IELTS depends on how the candidate's ability in English relates to the language demands of courses of study or training, not on reaching a fixed pass mark. The appropriate level required for a given course of study or training is ultimately something which institutions/departments/ colleges must decide in the light of knowledge of their own courses and their experience of overseas students taking them. The table below gives guidance on acceptable levels of performance for different courses. It should be noted, however, that many diverse variables can affect performance on courses, of which language ability is but one. Receiving organizations are advised to consider both the Overall Band Score and the Bands recorded for each individual module, which indicate the candidate’s particular strengths or weaknesses. Language skills can be matched to particular courses. For example, if a course has a lot of reading and writing, but no lectures, listening comprehension might not be quite as important and a score of, perhaps, 5.5/ 6 in Listening might be acceptable if the Overall Band Score was 7. However, for a course where there are lots of lectures and spoken instructions a score of 5.5/ 6 in Listening might be unacceptable even though the Overall Band Score was 7. Receiving organizations should also consider a candidate’s IELTS results in the context of a number of factors, including age and motivation, educational and cultural background, first language and language learning history.
Test Report Form
An example of the Test Report Form is shown on the right. Each module is reported separately as a Band Score, together with an Overall Band Score reported as a whole band or a half band. A descriptive statement giving a summary of the English of a candidate classified at each band level is provided below and is included on the reverse of the Test Report Form. The completed Test Report Form bears a centre stamp, a validation stamp, the candidate’s photograph and the authorized centre representative’s signature, and the authenticity of any Test Report Form can be verified by means of the Test Report Form Verification Service located at https://ielts.ucles.org.uk. British Council, IDP:IELTS Australia and Cambridge ESOL reserve the right to cancel any Test Report Form in the event of any attempt to tamper with or misuse the information contained in it.
IELTS band scores
The completed Test Report Form bears a centre stamp, a validation stamp, the candidate’s photograph and the authorized centre representative’s signature, and the authenticity of any Test Report Form can be verified by means of the Test Report Form Verification Service located at https://ielts.ucles.org.uk. British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia and Cambridge ESOL reserve the right to cancel any Test Report Form in the event of any attempt to tamper with or misuse the information contained in it.
In writing Module total score for Report writing is 3.6 and for Essay writing is 5.4. This score depends on your ability to write a report and an essay.
Similarly, speaking module covers total of 9 score. You will never get the score of speaking in decimal.
IELTS Test Results
» 9 Expert user
Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and fluent with complete understanding.
» 8 Very good user
Has fully operational command of the language with only occasional unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Misunderstandings may occur in unfamiliar situations. Handles complex detailed argumentation well.
» 7 Good user
Has operational command of the language, though with occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations. Generally handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning.
» 6 Competent user
Has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies, in appropriacies and misunderstandings. Can use and understand fairly complex language, particularly in familiar situations.
» 5 Modest user
Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though is likely to make many mistakes. Should be able to handle basic communication in own field.
» 4 Limited user
Basic competence is limited to familiar situations. Has frequent problems in understanding and expression. Is not able to use complex language.
» 3 Extremely limited user
Conveys and understands only general meaning in very familiar situations. Frequent breakdowns in communication occur.
» 2 Intermittent user
No real communication is possible except for the most basic information using isolated words or short formulae in familiar situations and to meet immediate needs. Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English.
» 1 Non user
Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few isolated words.
» 0 Did not attempt the test
No assessable information provided.
Interpretation of Results
Assessment of performance in IELTS depends on how the candidate's ability in English relates to the language demands of courses of study or training, not on reaching a fixed pass mark. The appropriate level required for a given course of study or training is ultimately something which institutions/departments/ colleges must decide in the light of knowledge of their own courses and their experience of overseas students taking them. The table below gives guidance on acceptable levels of performance for different courses. It should be noted, however, that many diverse variables can affect performance on courses, of which language ability is but one. Receiving organizations are advised to consider both the Overall Band Score and the Bands recorded for each individual module, which indicate the candidate’s particular strengths or weaknesses. Language skills can be matched to particular courses. For example, if a course has a lot of reading and writing, but no lectures, listening comprehension might not be quite as important and a score of, perhaps, 5.5/ 6 in Listening might be acceptable if the Overall Band Score was 7. However, for a course where there are lots of lectures and spoken instructions a score of 5.5/ 6 in Listening might be unacceptable even though the Overall Band Score was 7. Receiving organizations should also consider a candidate’s IELTS results in the context of a number of factors, including age and motivation, educational and cultural background, first language and language learning history.
Sunday, November 15, 2009
IELTS
The International English Language Testing System (IELTS) is conducted jointly by the British Council, the University of Cambridge ESOL Examinations (known popularly as the Cambridge ESOL) and IELTS Australia, which is the sub-division of IDP, the leading educational organization of the country of Australia.
IELTS measures Reading, Writing, Listening and Speaking skills of the candidates in English. About 5,000 government agencies, educational institutions and professional organisations around the world accept IELTS scores as proof of English proficiency of the candidates.
Over 9,38,000 people take this test across 120 countries. IELTS scores range from Band 1 to 9, with Band 1 score indicating the non-user and Band 9 indicating the expert user who has full command of the English language.
IELTS Test Format
All candidates need to complete four modules of Listening, Reading, Speaking and Writing to obtain an IELTS Test Report. Listening and Speaking modules are same for all candidates but students may choose to one of the following two versions of Reading and Writing Modules:
Academic Training Modules - It assesses whether the candidate can study undergraduate or postgraduate courses in English medium. The admission to academic programs of overseas institutions is based on the results of these modules.
General Training Modules - Though, this test does not test full range of formal language skills needed in academic environments, it emphasizes on survival skills of a candidate in broader areas of social and educational scenarios. These scores are meant for students who want to immigrate to Australia, Canada or New Zealand, complete their secondary education or undertake non-degree training programmes in English-speaking countries.
Important:
General Training modules may not be available at all the test centres.
Students have to specify their choice of test version at the centre and centres are not responsible for giving them this information.
In some of the selected test centres, candidates can opt to take computer-based IELTS test for Academic Training modules at the same cost as the paper-based test. The result of Computer Based IELTS can be expected in 13 calendar days from the day the candidate takes the test.
Skill TestedNo. of Sections/TasksNo. of Items/WordsAlloted Time
Listening4 Sections4030 minutes
Reading3 Sections4060 minutes
Writing2 Sections1st for 150 words and 2nd for 250 words60 minutes
Speaking- 11 to 14 minutes
Total Test Time2 hours 45 minutes
Listening, Reading and Writing Modules have to be attempted in one day but the Speaking Module can be taken seven days before or after the other Modules, at the discretion of the test centre.
IELTS registration
You must apply to a test centre to take an IELTS test prior to the test date.
Submit the IELTS application form in the test centre with the test fee, two passport sized photographs and a photocopy of your passport.
The test centre will confirm the date and time when you want to take your IELTS test.
You will need to take the passport or other identification number, you have mentioned in the admission form, while taking the test.
Tips and Strategies
Like all exams, it is best to prepare for IELTS exam even if you are a master in the use of English language. The fees for the test is high and a person who achieves a low band score in IELTS will have to wait for at least three months, before he or she can appear for the test again. Thus, even if you have good level of English, it is best to spend at least two weeks for IELTS preparation.
Be aware of the format of the test and the types of questions that are usually asked in the IELTS test.
Work diligently through various IELTS practice tests and IELTS sample tests that are available online and as part of the various study material packages so that you can achieve a high band score. Here are some tips and strategies that will help you to better equip yourself for IELTS:
IELTS does not penalize you for wrong answers, so attempt all questions.
For people with medium-level English, it is a good idea to opt for a four-day IELTS preparatory course offered by the British Council. It is an intensive course and offers substantial practice sessions. However, people a very high level of English levels may not find it worth their money.
There are no breaks between the different test sections and it is not advisable to waste time in the middle of the test. Hence, visiting the restroom before entering the examination hall is a wise thing to do.
Check all the documents that you need to carry for the exam before leaving for the test. This includes:
Original and valid passport,
Letter containing your roll number and test venue, and
Fee receipt.
You can use only pencils for listening and reading sections. So, do not forget to take sharpened pencils, a pencil sharpener and a good eraser along with you.
Be aware of the time limit that you can spend on each question.
Listening to a recording over speakers and through cordless headphones are two distinct experiences. It is best to check with your test centre to know beforehand what method do they use for the test and practice likewise.
Listen very carefully as the recordings are played only once. Sections 1 and 3 are dialogues and conversations are generally faster than the monologues in sections 2 and 4.
The voice on the tape tells you how many questions to read for a particular section. Underline the key words in each question in the time allotted to read and concentrate on them while listening to the section of the recording.
Jot down the answers on the question sheet itself. In the end, you will have 10 minutes of time to transfer all your answers to the answer sheet.
At the end of each section, you get time to re-check your answers. You may use this time to read the questions of the next section.
Generally, in a conversation answers appear in the same order as the questions. A speaker may correct himself or herself while speaking something. So, be alert to note the corrections that have been made to judge the final answer correct.
IELTS measures Reading, Writing, Listening and Speaking skills of the candidates in English. About 5,000 government agencies, educational institutions and professional organisations around the world accept IELTS scores as proof of English proficiency of the candidates.
Over 9,38,000 people take this test across 120 countries. IELTS scores range from Band 1 to 9, with Band 1 score indicating the non-user and Band 9 indicating the expert user who has full command of the English language.
IELTS Test Format
All candidates need to complete four modules of Listening, Reading, Speaking and Writing to obtain an IELTS Test Report. Listening and Speaking modules are same for all candidates but students may choose to one of the following two versions of Reading and Writing Modules:
Academic Training Modules - It assesses whether the candidate can study undergraduate or postgraduate courses in English medium. The admission to academic programs of overseas institutions is based on the results of these modules.
General Training Modules - Though, this test does not test full range of formal language skills needed in academic environments, it emphasizes on survival skills of a candidate in broader areas of social and educational scenarios. These scores are meant for students who want to immigrate to Australia, Canada or New Zealand, complete their secondary education or undertake non-degree training programmes in English-speaking countries.
Important:
General Training modules may not be available at all the test centres.
Students have to specify their choice of test version at the centre and centres are not responsible for giving them this information.
In some of the selected test centres, candidates can opt to take computer-based IELTS test for Academic Training modules at the same cost as the paper-based test. The result of Computer Based IELTS can be expected in 13 calendar days from the day the candidate takes the test.
Skill TestedNo. of Sections/TasksNo. of Items/WordsAlloted Time
Listening4 Sections4030 minutes
Reading3 Sections4060 minutes
Writing2 Sections1st for 150 words and 2nd for 250 words60 minutes
Speaking- 11 to 14 minutes
Total Test Time2 hours 45 minutes
Listening, Reading and Writing Modules have to be attempted in one day but the Speaking Module can be taken seven days before or after the other Modules, at the discretion of the test centre.
IELTS registration
You must apply to a test centre to take an IELTS test prior to the test date.
Submit the IELTS application form in the test centre with the test fee, two passport sized photographs and a photocopy of your passport.
The test centre will confirm the date and time when you want to take your IELTS test.
You will need to take the passport or other identification number, you have mentioned in the admission form, while taking the test.
Tips and Strategies
Like all exams, it is best to prepare for IELTS exam even if you are a master in the use of English language. The fees for the test is high and a person who achieves a low band score in IELTS will have to wait for at least three months, before he or she can appear for the test again. Thus, even if you have good level of English, it is best to spend at least two weeks for IELTS preparation.
Be aware of the format of the test and the types of questions that are usually asked in the IELTS test.
Work diligently through various IELTS practice tests and IELTS sample tests that are available online and as part of the various study material packages so that you can achieve a high band score. Here are some tips and strategies that will help you to better equip yourself for IELTS:
IELTS does not penalize you for wrong answers, so attempt all questions.
For people with medium-level English, it is a good idea to opt for a four-day IELTS preparatory course offered by the British Council. It is an intensive course and offers substantial practice sessions. However, people a very high level of English levels may not find it worth their money.
There are no breaks between the different test sections and it is not advisable to waste time in the middle of the test. Hence, visiting the restroom before entering the examination hall is a wise thing to do.
Check all the documents that you need to carry for the exam before leaving for the test. This includes:
Original and valid passport,
Letter containing your roll number and test venue, and
Fee receipt.
You can use only pencils for listening and reading sections. So, do not forget to take sharpened pencils, a pencil sharpener and a good eraser along with you.
Be aware of the time limit that you can spend on each question.
Listening to a recording over speakers and through cordless headphones are two distinct experiences. It is best to check with your test centre to know beforehand what method do they use for the test and practice likewise.
Listen very carefully as the recordings are played only once. Sections 1 and 3 are dialogues and conversations are generally faster than the monologues in sections 2 and 4.
The voice on the tape tells you how many questions to read for a particular section. Underline the key words in each question in the time allotted to read and concentrate on them while listening to the section of the recording.
Jot down the answers on the question sheet itself. In the end, you will have 10 minutes of time to transfer all your answers to the answer sheet.
At the end of each section, you get time to re-check your answers. You may use this time to read the questions of the next section.
Generally, in a conversation answers appear in the same order as the questions. A speaker may correct himself or herself while speaking something. So, be alert to note the corrections that have been made to judge the final answer correct.
Sunday, October 25, 2009
TCS PAPER ON 27th JANUARY 2008
The test was bit easy...(it all depends on ur preparation)... I am writing my experience..
The written test consisits of 3 sections.
1.VERBAL (32 Question(10syn, 10ant, 6sentence completion, 6RC).
2.Aptitude (38 questions)
3.Critical Reasoning (12 Questions).
please go through all previous papers once. and BARRON'S GRE 12TH EDITION IS MUST.
1.VERBAL SECTION:
For Synonyms & Antonyms:Prepare from previous papers and fresherworld's power preparation for TCS. RC and Sentence Completion is little bit tough.
PLEASE do three or four questions one day before from .
(recently asking....)
Censure - fault, criticize
Optimum- best, most favorable
Candid- frank, open, blunt, upfront, forth-right
Cite - quote, name, mention, refer to, allude to
Effusive - demonstrative, fussy, talkative, overenthusiastic,vociferous, extroverted
Voluble - articulate, vociferous, talkative
Banal - commonplace, trivial, predictable, trite, hackneyed
Standing - rank, permanent, position, duration, status, reputation,eminence
Nascent - budding, emerging, blossoming, embryonic
Clutch - grasp, grab, hold
Generic - general, basic, common
Empirical -experimental, pragmatic, practical
Anomaly - irregularity, glitch, difference
Circuitous - roundabout, twisty, meandering, indirect, winding, tortuous
Surveillance - observation, watch, shadowing
Objective - aim, impartial, real, purpose, goal
Raucous - rough, wild, hoarse, guttering
Voracious - insatiable, avid, hungry, big, rapacious, greedy
Pedigree - rare-breed, full-blooded, lineage
Fidelity - loyalty, reliability
Augment - supplement, boost, add to, bump up
Precarious - unstable, shaky, risky, uncertain
Derogatory - disparaging, critical, insulting, offensive
Onus - responsibility, burden, obligation, duty
Analogous - similar, akin, related
Expedient - measure, convenient, device, maneuver
Compliance - fulfillment, obedience
Diffident - shy, insecure, timid
Plaintive - mournful, sad, melancholic, nostalgic, lamenting
Insinuate - imply, suggest, make-out, ingratiate yourself
Misdemeanor - wrong, sin, crime, offense
Exonerate - clear, forgive, absolve
Gregarious - outgoing, extroverted, sociable, expressive, unreserved
Benign - kind, benevolent, compassionate
Attenuate - satisfy, calm, soothe, ease
Sonorous - loud, deep, resonant, echoing
Bolster - boost, strengthen, reinforce, encourage
Heterodox - unorthodox, dissenting, contrary to accepted belief,heretical, deviating
Restiveness - impatience, restlessness, nervousness
Effigy - image, statue, model
Retrograde - retrospective, traditional, conservative,nostalgic,forward-looking(antonym)
Sacrosanct - sacred, holy, revered
Dangle - hang down, sway, droop, swing, suspend
Cryptic -mysterious, enigmatic, puzzling, hidden
Debilitate - incapacitate, weaken, hamper, encumber, hinder
Divulge - reveal, disclose
Spendthrift - wastrel, squanderer, compulsive shopper
Indigenous -native, original, local
Erroneous - mistaken, flawed, incorrect
Minion - follower, subordinate, underling, gofer
Veracity - reality, truth, sincerity.
2.APTITUDE SECTION:
please go through these questions so you will find this section quite easy. some may be repeated
1. One Rectangular plate with length 8 inches breadth 11 inches and 2 inches thickness is there. What is the length of the circular rod with diameter 8 inches and equal to volume of rectangular plate ?
ans: 3.5 inches
2. 2 oranges, 3 bananas and 4 apples cost Rs.15 . 3 oranges 2 bananas 1 apple costs Rs 10. what is the cost of 3 oranges, 3 bananas and 3 apples
ans: Rs 15.
3. Two pencils costs 8 cents, then 5 pencils cost how much
ans:20 cents
4. A sales person multiplied a number and get the answer is 3, instead of that number divided by 3. what is th answer he actually has to get ?
ans: 1/3
5. A stationary engine has enough fuel to move 12 hours when its tank is 4/5 full, how much hours will it run when the tank is 1/3 full
ans: 5 hours
6. A car travels 12 kms with a 4/5th filled tank. How far will the car travel with 1/3 filled tank?
Ans. 5 kms
7. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 8. When 18 is added to the number, the digits are reversed. Find the number?
Ans. 35
8. Fathers age is 5 times his son's age. 4 years back the father was 9 times older than son. Find the fathers' present age.
Ans. 40 years
9. What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 so that it becomes equal to 1 : 2.Ans. 10 should be subtracted
10. What is the 12th term of the series 2, 5, 8, --
Ans. 35
11. If 20 men take 15 days to to complete a job, in how many days can 25 men finish that work?
Ans. 12 days
12. If Rs.1260 is divided between between A, B and C in the ratio 2:3:4, what is C's share?
Ans. Rs. 560
13. Hansie made the following amounts in seven games of cricket in India: Rs.10, Rs.15, Rs.21, Rs.12, Rs.18, Rs.19 and Rs.17(all figures in crores of course). Find his average earnings.
Ans. Rs.16 crore
14. There are 150 weights .Some are 1 kg weights and some are 2 kg weights. The sum of the weights is 260.What is the number of 1kg weights?
Ans. 40
15. A family, planning a weekend trip, decides to spend not more than a total of 8 hours driving. By leaving early in the morning, they can average 40 miles per hour on the way to their destination. Due to the heavy Sunday traffic, they can average only 30 miles per hour on the return trip. What is the farthest distance from home they can plan to go?
(a) 120 miles or less (b) Between 120and 140 miles (c) 140 miles
(d) Between 140 and 160 miles (e) 160 miles or more
16. A car is filled with four and half gallons of fuel for a round trip. If the amount of fuel taken while going is 1/4 more than the amount taken for coming, what is the amount of fuel consumed while coming back?
(a) Less than 2 gallons (b) 2 gallons (c) 2 1/2 gallons
(d) 3 gallons (e) More than 3 gallons
17. A 3-gallon mixture contains one part S and two parts R. In order to change it to a mixture containing 25% S, how much R should be added?
(a) 1/2 gallon (b) 2/3 gallon (c) 3/4 gallon (d) 1 gallon (e) 1 1/2 gallon
18. Wind flows at 160 miles in 330 minutes, for traveling 80 miles how much time does it require?
(a) 1 hour 30 minutes (b) 1 hour 45 minutes (c) 2 hours (d) 2 hours 45 minutes (e) 3 hours
19. A salesperson by mistake multiplied a number and got the answer as 3, instead of dividing the number by 3. What is the answer he should have actually got?
(a) 0 (b) 1/3 (c) 1 (d) 2 (e) 3
20. In the class of 40 students, 30 speak Hindi and 20 speak English. What is the lowest possible number of students who speak both the languages?
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 10 (e) 30
21. One year ago Pandit was three times his sister's age. Next year he will be only twice her age. How old will Pandit be after five years?
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 13 (e) 15
22. A moves 3 kms east from his starting point. He then travels 5 kms north. From that point he moves 8 kms to the east.How far is A from his starting point?
Ans. 13 kms
23. Fathers age is 5 times his son's age. 4 years back the father was 9 times older than son.Find the fathers' present age.
Ans. 40 years
24. if the word 'ddosszm' is changed to 'central' then what will be the change for 'rtjbl' ?
ans: quick
25. what is the largest prime number in 8 digit number?
26. the word unimpressive was given.they asked us to do change 1st & 2nd,3rd & 4th,so on.then they asked what will be 10th letter from right?
ans:m
27. the plane question was asked.it took off from 7 degree 53' 6.1'' and landed at 8 degree 6' 43.5''.it takes 12 hours to travel between these points.then what will be local time at destination ?[just follow previous ques paper the problem was same
28. g[0]=1,g[1]=-1,g[n]=2*g[n-1]-3*g[n-2] then calculate g[4]= ?
29. the series was asked : 5,6,7,8,10,11,14,-?
30. they asked the temperature problem.it was same as previous papers.the ratio was -t*t/6+4t+12.
31. the matrix of a(7,9) was given.the address of the first byte of a(1,1)=1258.it takes 4 bytes to store the nuymber.then calculate the address of the last byte of a(5,8)
32. the program requires 4000(n)1/2 [ie square root of n].if size of program was increased by 1% then calculate the percentage change in size of program.
33. modulo(373,7)+round(5.8)+truncat(7.2)-round(3.4) = ?
ans : 12
34. (imp) the bucket size is 10KB.it takes 0.0001 KB/milisec to fill bucket.the bucket takes 100 or 1000 milisec to reach to destination.it takes 100 milisec to pass acknowledgement from dest to source.so calculate how much time will it take to pass N KB, write formula.
35. the graph was given.the x and y axes were there.the line is intersecting them. the points of intersection were y=3,x=0 and x=-2,y=0.write the equation of line.
36. the decimal number was given.it was converted to other system.they asked to identify the system.i.e. octal,hexadecimal.
37. Satish earns 240 weekly.12% of big amount + earning weekly = 540.What is the big amount?
a) 3200 b) 3600 c) 2500 d) 1000
Sol : c
38.There is a six-letter word UGANDA. How many ways u can arrange the letters in the word in such a way that both A's are together. Ans) 120
39.If two cards are taken one after another without replacing from a pack of cards. What will be the probability for 2 cards to be drawn? Ans) 1/13 x1/17
40. In a two-dimensional array, X (9, 7), with each element occupying 4 bytes of memory, with the address of the first element X (1, 1) is 3000; find the address of X (8, 5).
41. In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
42. Select the odd one out..-a. Java b. Lisp c. Smalltalk d. Eiffel.
43. Select the odd one out a. SMTP b. WAP c. SAP d. ARP
44. Select the odd one out a. Oracle b. Linux c. Ingress d. DB2
45. Select the odd one out a. WAP b. HTTP c. BAAN d. ARP
46. Select the odd one out a. LINUX b. UNIX c. SOLARIS d. SQL SEVER
47. Select the odd one out a. SQL b. DB2 c. SYBASE d. HTTP
48. If TAFJHH is coded as RBEKGI then RBDJK can be coded as?
49. G(0)= -1, G(1)=1, G(N)=G(N-1) - G(N-2), G(5)= ?
50. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit.The cost of the cable below water is Rs.15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/-per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
51. In Madras, temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much temperature more or less in 4pm to 9pm.
52. Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?
a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j
53. If A, B and C are the mechanisms used separately to reduce the wastage of fuel by 30%, 20% and 10%.What will be the fuel economy if they were used combined.
54. What is the power of 2? a. 2068 b.2048 c.2668
55. A, B and C are 8 bit no's. They are as follows:
A -> 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1
B -> 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0
C -> 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1
Find ((A-B) u C)=?
56. A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7 days. Then find in how many days, A alone can complete the work?
57. (Momentum*Velocity)/(Acceleration * distance). Find units.
58. Which of the following set of numbers has the highest Standard deviation?
a)1,0,1,0,1,0 b) -1, -1, -1, -1, -1, -1
c)1,1,1,1,1,1 d) 1,1,0, -1,0, -1
59. 3 angles or 3 sides r given.Which will form a triangle?
60. Venn Diagram kinda ques.
Some know English, some French, some German....how many know two languages..-
61. Bar Diagram, Pie Chart (similar to Data interpretation)
62. if n=68*12*51, whaich one is not a integer
1.n/102, 2.n/72, 3. n/153, 4.n/136 5. n/244
63. no.of vertices,edges, faces are given.which one among these best suits for the solid planner cube.
12, 8, 6 6 ,8 ,12 4 , 8, 12 8 ,12, 6
64. Which one among have higher deviation:1. 7,0,-7, 7,0,-7 2. -7,-7,-7,-7,-7,-7
3. 7,-7,7,-7,7,-7 4. 7,7,7,7,7,7
65. match the box
a.scooter---automobile a.super set of
b.oxygen---water b.not a type of
c.shopfloorstaff----filters c.a type of
d. bug---reptile d.part of
IIIrd Section Critical Reasioning
this section is little bit tough and mostly it depend on your luck that what question you get.
(3 Problems and 12 questions (4 question for each problem))
please go through these questions in BARRON'S GRE 12TH EDITION model papers.
1) 2 types of marriage problem (Red - Brown).
2) Dog's problem.... .... ..(name of the dogs) won the top of four prizes..-
3) Wallaci... And Rumania are delicates from this two countries are ..-
4) East liver pool Problem(6 cities) ChetanaS
5) University College Problem (j , k, l,..) Small college big university.
6) Pesth(Plumber and electracian)
7) One problem with number series (squares and cubes)
8) Joes apartment problem
9) US citizen (US born , Naturalized)problem
10) Scurvy problem (disease)
11) Mirmar hotel
after half an hour I got my written result and i fill the the form. my interview is on next day.
Technical and HR & finally MR
In technical they shoot questions only in what u mentioned in Resume.. you must be a master in SQL they also ask general questions from your syllabus.
Technical Interview (20-25 min mostly depend on person and your luck)
I was interviewed for only 10 minutes.
So Be prepared with ur resume..-
1. They asked introduce yourself
I gave intro..
2. They asked some questions in C, software engg.,DBMS
Query for selecting a tuple in a table.
3. About my projects which I had mentioned in Resume..
Then they say me for waiting some time
please take your pen with you ,coz i forgot mine that's all in Technical.
After some time I get call for HR
HR...
1) How are you feeling????????
2) How was your day??????
3) Have you taken your breakfast???????
4) What you have taken in breakfast??????
5) If we send you at any location in India or abroad you will go or not??????
6) tell me something about you that is not in resume???????
7) If we give you any assignment you will accept or not???????
than she told me that You are bonded for 2 years with TCS and if you break it then you have to pay 50000/- rs to us And we can place you any city in India there you have to do coding work on project you are ready for it
I say yes......
this is all i was asked I did not get a call for MR
On next day night the results were announced and my name was there in the list.
BEST OF LUCK FOR YOUR PLACEMENT.
TCS on 24th Jan at IPS Academy Indore
written exam is divided in three part..
1) Verbal
2) Aptitude
3) Critical reasoning
it is very clear there is no sessional cut-off..
1) In verbal section 10ANTONYMS, 10SYNONYMS , and around 12 fill in the blanks were there.
Most of the antonyms and synonyms were from GRE BARRON'S 12 th edition high frequency word list. But those 12 blanks were not from GRE BARRON”S so it was difficult to answer them.
Here r some Antonyms and synonyms.
Synonyms:
Musty= stale ,Galleon= ship,Garrulous= talkative ,Brochure= pamphlet ,Candid= outspoken ,Regal= royal , Repudiate = reject ,Chimerical= fantastic
Antonyms:
Credit X believe false ,Quixotic X pragmatic ,Admonition X commendation ,Precipitate X Dilatory,Inter X bury.
Omniscience X Ignorance., Precipitous X Cautious , Protract X shorten ,Tenacious X
2) In aptitude test there were 38 questions...please read the previous papers thoroughly ...pattern remains same only just data is changed...
1. In a two-dimensional array, X (9, 7), with each element occupying 4 bytes of memory, with the address of the first element X (1, 1) is 3000; find the address of X (8, 5).
2. In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
3. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit memory?
4. Select the odd one out…..a. Java b. Lisp c. Smalltalk d. Eiffel.
5. Select the odd one out a. SMTP b. WAP c. SAP d. ARP
6. Select the odd one out a. Oracle b. Linux c. Ingress d. DB2
7. Select the odd one out a. WAP b. HTTP c. BAAN d. ARP
8. Select the odd one out a. LINUX b. UNIX c. SOLARIS d. SQL SEVER
9. Select the odd one out a. SQL b. DB2 c. SYBASE d. HTTP
10. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
11. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work? 12. In which of the system, decimal number 184 is equal to 1234?
13. Find the value of the 678 to the base-7.
14. Number of faces, vertices and edges of a cube
15. Complete the series 2, 7, 24, 77,__
16. Find the value of @@+25-++@16, where @ denotes "square" and + denotes "square root".
17. Find the result of the following expression if, M denotes modulus operation, R denotes round-off, T denotes truncation: M(373,5)+R(3.4)+T(7.7)+R(5.8)
18. If TAFJHH is coded as RBEKGI then RBDJK can be coded as?
19. G(0)= -1, G(1)=1, G(N)=G(N-1) - G(N-2), G(5)= ?
20. What is the max possible 3 digit prime number?
21. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit.The cost of the cable below water is Rs.15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/-per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
22. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
23. In Madras, temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much temperature more or less in 4pm to 9pm.
24. The size of the bucket is N kb. The bucket fills at the rate of 0.1 kb per millisecond. A programmer sends a program to receiver. There it waits for 10 milliseconds. And response will be back to programmer in 20 milliseconds. How much time the program takes to get a response back to the programmer, after it is sent?
25. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work?
26. If the vertex (5,7) is placed in the memory. First vertex (1,1) `s address is 1245 and then address of (5,7) is ----------
27. Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?
a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j
28. If VXUPLVH is written as SURMISE, what is SHDVD?
29. If A, B and C are the mechanisms used separately to reduce the wastage of fuel by 30%, 20% and 10%.What will be the fuel economy if they were used combined.
30. What is the power of 2? a. 2068 b.2048 c.2668
31. Complete the series. 3, 8, --, 24, --, 48, 63.
32. Complete the series. 4, -5, 11, -14, 22, --
33. A, B and C are 8 bit no's. They are as follows:
A -> 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1
B -> 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0
C -> 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 Find ((A-B) u C)=?
34. A Flight takes off at 2 A.M from northeast direction and travels for 11 hours to reach the destination, which is in northwest direction. Given the latitude and longitude of source and destination. Find the local time of destination when the flight reaches there?
35. A can copy 50 papers in 10 hours while both A & B can copy 70 papers in 10 hours. Then for how many hours required for B to copy 26 papers?
36. A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7 days. Then find in how many days, A alone can complete the work?
37. A finish the work in 10 days. B is 60% efficient than A. So how many days do B takes to finish the work?
38. A finishes the work in 10 days & B in 8 days individually. If A works for only 6 days then how many days should B work to complete A's work? Ans: 3.2 days
39. Given the length of the 3 sides of a triangle. Find the one that is impossible? (HINT: sum of smaller 2 sides is greater than the other one, which is larger)
40. Find the singularity matrix from a given set of matrices?
41. A 2D array is declared as A[9,7] and each element requires 2 byte. If A [1,1] is stored in 3000. Find the memory of A[8,5] ?
42. Sum of slopes of 2 perpendicular st.lines is given. Find the pair of lines from the given set of options, which satisfy the above condition?
43. (a) 2+3i (b)1+i (c) 3-2i (d) 1-7i .Find which of the above is orthogonal.
44. (Momentum*Velocity)/(Acceleration * distance). Find units.
45. The number 362 in decimal system is given by (1362) x in the X System of numbers find the value of X a} 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 e) 9
46. Given $ means Tripling and % means change of sign then find the value of $%$6-%$%6
47. My flight takes of at 2am from a place at 18N 10E and landed 10 Hrs later at a place with coordinates 36N70W. What is the local time when my plane landed?
6:00 am b) 6:40am c) 7:40 d) 7:00 e) 8:00
48. Find the highest prime number that can be stored in an 8 bit Computer?
49. Which of the following set of numbers has the highest Standard deviation?
a)1,0,1,0,1,0 b) -1, -1, -1, -1, -1, -1 c)1,1,1,1,1,1 d) 1,1,0, -1,0, -1
3)Analytical Reasoning:
Take Barrons 12th edition and go through all of the model test papers(1-5). Omit the passages containing 1 or 2 qns. Study the pasages with 4 or more qns. The passages and qns are cut ,copy, paste from Barrons. Some times (rarely), they change the names.
I had gone through the previous 40 qn papers in this site and found out which passages were asked. They are:
Model test 1: Section5 - qns 1-4 (motorist), qns 13-16 (red and brown)….. Section6 - qns 1-4 (conservative,democratic), qns 8-11 (latin, sanskrit), qns 12-18 (joe,larry,ned), qns 19-22 (a causes b)
Model test 2: Section1 - qns 19-22 (wallachia and rumelia) ---i got this qn, but the names were changed as london and paris, and a,b,c etc were changed as french, italian etc.
Section6 - qns 8-12 (ashland, liverpool), qns 13-16 (spelunker) ---i got this qn, qns 17-22 (pesth) ---i got this one too
Model test 3: Section6 - qns 1-4 (all Gs are Hs)
Model test 4: Section5 - qns 8-11 (horizontal row), qns 19-22 (a,b,c cause d)
Section6 - qns 8-12 (spanish, italian), qns 13-16 (all As, Bs), qns 17-22 (progressive federal party)
Model test 5: Section3 - qns8-11 (museum), qns 19-22 (A is the father)
Section7- qns 1-5 (prahtu, brahtu), qns 21-25 (scurvy)
Analytical section consists of 12 qns to be answered in 30 mins.
PLZZZZZZZZ GO THRU THE 5 MODEL PAPERS OF GRE BARRON’S………….
ONLY STUDY THE MODEL PAPERS OF GRE BARRONS 12&13th edition only... you have certainly got para among them..
TECH INTERVIEW...
It was on DBMS .They asked me abut Normalization,queries and many more concepts…
Prepare one core subject .you should know every thing in that subject.
M.R+H.R.....
1) Describe ur self?
2) Tell me ur strengths and weakness.
3) What do u expect from TCS?.
4) What do u know about our company?
5) How many times u have visited our web site?
6) Do u know about our 2 year bound.
7) Are u comfortable to go any where?
And many more……………
when the result announced my name was in the list..
I just want to say that BE CONFIDENT AND BELIVE IN URSELF…………
ALL THE BEST
1) Verbal
2) Aptitude
3) Critical reasoning
it is very clear there is no sessional cut-off..
1) In verbal section 10ANTONYMS, 10SYNONYMS , and around 12 fill in the blanks were there.
Most of the antonyms and synonyms were from GRE BARRON'S 12 th edition high frequency word list. But those 12 blanks were not from GRE BARRON”S so it was difficult to answer them.
Here r some Antonyms and synonyms.
Synonyms:
Musty= stale ,Galleon= ship,Garrulous= talkative ,Brochure= pamphlet ,Candid= outspoken ,Regal= royal , Repudiate = reject ,Chimerical= fantastic
Antonyms:
Credit X believe false ,Quixotic X pragmatic ,Admonition X commendation ,Precipitate X Dilatory,Inter X bury.
Omniscience X Ignorance., Precipitous X Cautious , Protract X shorten ,Tenacious X
2) In aptitude test there were 38 questions...please read the previous papers thoroughly ...pattern remains same only just data is changed...
1. In a two-dimensional array, X (9, 7), with each element occupying 4 bytes of memory, with the address of the first element X (1, 1) is 3000; find the address of X (8, 5).
2. In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
3. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit memory?
4. Select the odd one out…..a. Java b. Lisp c. Smalltalk d. Eiffel.
5. Select the odd one out a. SMTP b. WAP c. SAP d. ARP
6. Select the odd one out a. Oracle b. Linux c. Ingress d. DB2
7. Select the odd one out a. WAP b. HTTP c. BAAN d. ARP
8. Select the odd one out a. LINUX b. UNIX c. SOLARIS d. SQL SEVER
9. Select the odd one out a. SQL b. DB2 c. SYBASE d. HTTP
10. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
11. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work? 12. In which of the system, decimal number 184 is equal to 1234?
13. Find the value of the 678 to the base-7.
14. Number of faces, vertices and edges of a cube
15. Complete the series 2, 7, 24, 77,__
16. Find the value of @@+25-++@16, where @ denotes "square" and + denotes "square root".
17. Find the result of the following expression if, M denotes modulus operation, R denotes round-off, T denotes truncation: M(373,5)+R(3.4)+T(7.7)+R(5.8)
18. If TAFJHH is coded as RBEKGI then RBDJK can be coded as?
19. G(0)= -1, G(1)=1, G(N)=G(N-1) - G(N-2), G(5)= ?
20. What is the max possible 3 digit prime number?
21. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit.The cost of the cable below water is Rs.15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/-per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
22. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
23. In Madras, temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much temperature more or less in 4pm to 9pm.
24. The size of the bucket is N kb. The bucket fills at the rate of 0.1 kb per millisecond. A programmer sends a program to receiver. There it waits for 10 milliseconds. And response will be back to programmer in 20 milliseconds. How much time the program takes to get a response back to the programmer, after it is sent?
25. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work?
26. If the vertex (5,7) is placed in the memory. First vertex (1,1) `s address is 1245 and then address of (5,7) is ----------
27. Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?
a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j
28. If VXUPLVH is written as SURMISE, what is SHDVD?
29. If A, B and C are the mechanisms used separately to reduce the wastage of fuel by 30%, 20% and 10%.What will be the fuel economy if they were used combined.
30. What is the power of 2? a. 2068 b.2048 c.2668
31. Complete the series. 3, 8, --, 24, --, 48, 63.
32. Complete the series. 4, -5, 11, -14, 22, --
33. A, B and C are 8 bit no's. They are as follows:
A -> 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1
B -> 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0
C -> 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 Find ((A-B) u C)=?
34. A Flight takes off at 2 A.M from northeast direction and travels for 11 hours to reach the destination, which is in northwest direction. Given the latitude and longitude of source and destination. Find the local time of destination when the flight reaches there?
35. A can copy 50 papers in 10 hours while both A & B can copy 70 papers in 10 hours. Then for how many hours required for B to copy 26 papers?
36. A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7 days. Then find in how many days, A alone can complete the work?
37. A finish the work in 10 days. B is 60% efficient than A. So how many days do B takes to finish the work?
38. A finishes the work in 10 days & B in 8 days individually. If A works for only 6 days then how many days should B work to complete A's work? Ans: 3.2 days
39. Given the length of the 3 sides of a triangle. Find the one that is impossible? (HINT: sum of smaller 2 sides is greater than the other one, which is larger)
40. Find the singularity matrix from a given set of matrices?
41. A 2D array is declared as A[9,7] and each element requires 2 byte. If A [1,1] is stored in 3000. Find the memory of A[8,5] ?
42. Sum of slopes of 2 perpendicular st.lines is given. Find the pair of lines from the given set of options, which satisfy the above condition?
43. (a) 2+3i (b)1+i (c) 3-2i (d) 1-7i .Find which of the above is orthogonal.
44. (Momentum*Velocity)/(Acceleration * distance). Find units.
45. The number 362 in decimal system is given by (1362) x in the X System of numbers find the value of X a} 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 e) 9
46. Given $ means Tripling and % means change of sign then find the value of $%$6-%$%6
47. My flight takes of at 2am from a place at 18N 10E and landed 10 Hrs later at a place with coordinates 36N70W. What is the local time when my plane landed?
6:00 am b) 6:40am c) 7:40 d) 7:00 e) 8:00
48. Find the highest prime number that can be stored in an 8 bit Computer?
49. Which of the following set of numbers has the highest Standard deviation?
a)1,0,1,0,1,0 b) -1, -1, -1, -1, -1, -1 c)1,1,1,1,1,1 d) 1,1,0, -1,0, -1
3)Analytical Reasoning:
Take Barrons 12th edition and go through all of the model test papers(1-5). Omit the passages containing 1 or 2 qns. Study the pasages with 4 or more qns. The passages and qns are cut ,copy, paste from Barrons. Some times (rarely), they change the names.
I had gone through the previous 40 qn papers in this site and found out which passages were asked. They are:
Model test 1: Section5 - qns 1-4 (motorist), qns 13-16 (red and brown)….. Section6 - qns 1-4 (conservative,democratic), qns 8-11 (latin, sanskrit), qns 12-18 (joe,larry,ned), qns 19-22 (a causes b)
Model test 2: Section1 - qns 19-22 (wallachia and rumelia) ---i got this qn, but the names were changed as london and paris, and a,b,c etc were changed as french, italian etc.
Section6 - qns 8-12 (ashland, liverpool), qns 13-16 (spelunker) ---i got this qn, qns 17-22 (pesth) ---i got this one too
Model test 3: Section6 - qns 1-4 (all Gs are Hs)
Model test 4: Section5 - qns 8-11 (horizontal row), qns 19-22 (a,b,c cause d)
Section6 - qns 8-12 (spanish, italian), qns 13-16 (all As, Bs), qns 17-22 (progressive federal party)
Model test 5: Section3 - qns8-11 (museum), qns 19-22 (A is the father)
Section7- qns 1-5 (prahtu, brahtu), qns 21-25 (scurvy)
Analytical section consists of 12 qns to be answered in 30 mins.
PLZZZZZZZZ GO THRU THE 5 MODEL PAPERS OF GRE BARRON’S………….
ONLY STUDY THE MODEL PAPERS OF GRE BARRONS 12&13th edition only... you have certainly got para among them..
TECH INTERVIEW...
It was on DBMS .They asked me abut Normalization,queries and many more concepts…
Prepare one core subject .you should know every thing in that subject.
M.R+H.R.....
1) Describe ur self?
2) Tell me ur strengths and weakness.
3) What do u expect from TCS?.
4) What do u know about our company?
5) How many times u have visited our web site?
6) Do u know about our 2 year bound.
7) Are u comfortable to go any where?
And many more……………
when the result announced my name was in the list..
I just want to say that BE CONFIDENT AND BELIVE IN URSELF…………
ALL THE BEST
Bit mesra Ranchi TCS PAPER ON 17th JULY 2008
First there will be PPT from TCS .U MAY ASK SOME GENUINE QUERY TO THEM .BUT NO NONSENSE QUERIES and make your own ID. Then they will give u the details of online test. There is no sectional cut off ,attempt as much question from aptitude section, as most of them are repeated
There will be three section
1.English 32 questions 20min
2.Aptitude section 38ques 40 min.
3.critical reasoning 12ques 30min.
Online Written Test...
1.ENGLISH SECTION: PLEASE HAVE A LOOK ON THESE:
We had 10 synonyms and 10 antonyms For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning:
Q No. 1 GARRULOUS
(a) Arid (b) Hasty (c) Sociable (d) Quaint (e) Talkative
Q No. 2 INTER
(a) Bury (b) Amuse (c) Relate (d) Frequent (e) Abandon
Q No. 3 CHIMERICAL
(a) Developing (b) Brief (c) Distant (d) Economical (e) Fantastic
Q No. 4 BROCHURE
(a) Opening (b) Pamphlet (c) Censor (d) Bureau (e) Pin
Q No. 5 EQUANIMITY
(a) Clamour (b) Disparity (c) Composure (d) Propensity (e) Indivisibility
Q No. 6 GALLEON
(a) Liquid measure (b) Ship (c) Armada (d) Company (e) Printer’s proof
Q No. 7 REGAL
(a) Oppressive (b) Royal (c) Major (d) Basic (e) Entertain
Q No. 8 MUSTY
(a) Stale (b) Necessary (c) Indifferent (d) Nonchalant (e) Vivid
Q No. 9 INDIGNITY
(a) Pomposity (b) Bombast (c) Obeisance (d) Insult (e) Message
Q No. 10 CANDID
(a) Vague (b) Outspoken (c) Experience (d) Anxious (e) Sallow
For each of the words in capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:
Q No. 11 REPUDIATE
(a) Hesitant (b) Neutrality (c) Admit (d) Polite (e) Incongruity
Q No. 12 CREDIT
(a) Believe false (b) Treat as equal (c) Make more difficult (d) Underemphasize (e) Irresolute
Q No. 13 TENACIOUS
(a) Fast-running (b) Intention (c) Obnoxious (d) Holding fast (e) Irresolute
Q No. 14 PRECIPITATE
(a) Intricate (b) Devious (c) Posthumous (d) Dilatory (e) Contradictory
Q No. 15 QUIXOTIC
(a) Slow (b) Abstemious (c) Pragmatic (d) Benevolent (e) Grave
Q No. 16 ADMONITION
(a) Premonition (b) Hallucination (c) Escape (d) Commendation (e) Trepidation
Q No. 17 PROCLIVITY
(a) Prodigality (b) Avoidance (c) Credence (d) Calumny (e) Inception
Q No. 18 OMNISCIENCE
(a) Power (b) Extravagance (c) Magnanimity (d) Conscience (e) Ignorance
Q No. 19 PRECIPITIOUS
(a) Cooperative (b) Cautious (c) Inaccurate (d) Formal (e) Simplistic
Q No. 20 PROTRACT
(a) Defy (b) Supplement (c) Postpone (d) Shorten (e) Design
For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning :
Q No. 1 CONTROVERT
(a) Turn over (b) Contradict (c) Mind (d) Explain (e) Swing
Q No. 2 MIRAGE
(a) Dessert (b) Illusion (c) Water (d) Mirror (e) Statement
Q No. 3 INTERDICT
(a) Acclaim (b) Dispute (c) Prohibit (d) Decide (e) Fret
Q No. 4 INCONTINENT
(a) Insular (b) Complaisant (c) Grass (d) Wanton (e) Faults
Q No. 5 GADFLY
(a) Humourist (b) Nuisance (c) Scholar (d) Bum (e) Thief
Q No. 6 DECIMATE
(a) Kill (b) Disgrace (c) Search (d) Collide (e) Deride
Q No. 7 MESMERIZE
(a) Remember (b) Hypnotize (c) Delay (d) Bore (e) Analyze
Q No. 8 SEDATE
(a) Unify (b) Immunize (c) Tranquilize (d) Stimulate (e) Injure
Q No. 9 DECOROUS
(a) momentary (b) Emotional (c) Suppressed (d) Proper (e) Unexpected
Q No. 10 REPUGNANCE
(a) belligerence (b) Tenacity (c) Renewal (d) Pity (e) Loathing
For each of the words in capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:
Q No. 11 TANTAMOUNT
(a) Not negotiable (b) not equivalent (c) Not ambitious (d) Not evident (e) Not relevant
Q No. 12 ABIDE
(a) Retract an offer (b) Refuse to endure (c) Shield from harm (d) Exonerate (e) Welcome
Q No. 13 PROSPEROUS
(a) Disengage (b) Impoverished (c) Refute thoroughly (d) Answer hypothetically (e) Consider genuinely
Q No. 14 VOUCHSAFE
(a) Postpone (b) Dissemble (c) Endanger (d) Prohibit (e) Justify
Q No. 15 CAVIL
(a) Discern (b) Disclose (c) Introduce (d) Flatter (e) Commend
Q No. 16 BOORISH
(a) Juvenile (b) Well mannered (c) Weak minded (d) Unique (e) Concealed
Q No. 17 ANTITHETICAL
(a) Qualitative (b) Unnatural (c) Deceptive (d) Supportive (e) Noncommittal
Q No. 18 REVILE
(a) Compose (b) Awake (c) Deaden (d) Praise (e) Secrete
Q No. 19 DESULTORY
(a) Apologetic (b) Independent (c) Laudatory (d) Questionable (e) Methodical
Q No. 20 ASSUAGE
(a) Wane (b) Belie (c) Worsen (d) Intervene (e) Presume
For each of the words in Capital letters. Choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning :
Q No. 1 CLEFT
(a) Split (b) Waterfall (c) Assembly (d) Adherence (e) Surplus
Q No. 2 ISOTROPIC
(a) Feeling cold (b) Being isolated (c) Showing warm (d) Having uniformity (e) Creating wealth
Q No. 3 TAWDRY
(a) Orderly (b) Meretricious (c) Reclaimed (d) Filtered (e) Proper
Q No. 4 FURTIVE
(a) Underhanded (b) Coy (c) Brilliant (d) Quick (e) Abortive
Q No. 5 EQUANIMITY
(a) Clamour (b) Disparity (c) Composure (d) Propensity (e) Indivisibility
Q No. 6 INCRIMINATE
(a) Exacerbate (b) Involve (c) Intimidate (d) Lacerate (e) Prevaricate
Q No. 7 INTREPID
(a) Cold (b) Hot (c) Understood (d) Callow (e) Courageous
Q No. 8 INNOCUOUS
(a) Not capable (b) Not dangerous (c) Not eager (d) Not frank (e) Not peaceful
Q No. 9 TRANSLUCENT
(a) Clear (b) Opaque (c) Movement (d) Efficient (e) Telepathy
Q No. 10 BRACKISH
(a) Careful (b) Salty (c) Chosen (d) Tough (e) Wet
For each of the words in capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:
Q No. 11 COMPLY
(a) Simplify (b) Strive (c) Rebel (d) Unite (e) Appreciate
Q No. 12 RETROSPECTION
(a) Introversion (b) Deliberation (c) Anticipation (d) Gregariousness (e) Equivocation
Q No. 13 HAPLESS
(a) Fortuitous (b) Fortunate (c) Fortifield (d) Forbidden (e) Forestalled
Q No. 14 PRECIPITATE
(a) Intricate (b) Devious (c) posthumous (d) Dilatory (e) Contradictory
Q No. 15 SEDULOUS
(a) Tangential (b) Rampant (c) Esoteric (d) Morose (e) Indolent
Q No. 16 HAMPER
(a) Feed (b) Animate (c) Facilitate (d) Treat lightly (e) Caution tactfully
Q No. 17 URBANE
(a) Civic (b) Remote (c) Deceptive (d) Conventional (e) Naïve
Q No. 18 DISINGEOUS
(a) Naive (b) Accurate (c) Hostile (d) Witty (e) Polite
Q No. 19 TRACTABLE
(a) Incoherent (b) Advisable (c) Simplistic (d) Influential (e) Uncooperative
Q No. 20 PROPITIOUS
(a) Adjacent (b) Clandestine (c) Contentious (d) Unfavourable (e) Coy
2. FILL THE BLANKS:
Observe the dilemma of the fungus; it is a plant, but possesses no chlorophyll. While all other plants put the sun’s energy to work for them combining the nutrients of ground and air into the body structure._____1______.Chlorophyll is found in these other plants which, having received their energy free from the sun, relinquish it__2__.
In this search of energy, the fungus has become the earth’s major source of rot and decay. Wherever you see mould forming on a piece of bread, or a pile of leaves turning to compost, or a bloom down tree becoming pulp on the ground, _____3___.
With fungus action, the earth would be pooled high with_____4______.
In fact, certain plants which contain resins that are ____5_______. Specimen of the redwood tree, for instance can still be found ______6________.
A. You are watching a fungus acting.
B. Resting on the forest floor centuries after having been cut down.
C. Responsible for decomposition of much plant life.
D. Fungus must look elsewhere for an energy supply.
E. Cannot produce their own store of energy.
F. The dead plant life of past centuries.
G. At some point in their cycle either to animal or to fungi.
H. Fungus is vastly different from other plants.
I. Toxic to fungi will last indefinitely.
3.AND A PASSAGE
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE SECTION
1. Two pencils costs 8 cents, then 5 pencils cost how much
Sol: 2 pencils è 8 cents => 1 pencil è 4 cents
Therefore 5 pencils cost = 5 * 4 = 20 cents.
2. A work is done by two people in 24 min. one of them can do this work a lonely in 40 min. how much time required to do the same work for the second person.
Sol: (A+B) can do the work in = 1/24 min.
A alone can do the same work in = 1/40 min.
B alone can do the same work in = (A+B)’s – A’s = 1/24 – 1/40 = 1/60
Therefore, b can do the same work in = 60 min.
3.A car is filled with four and half gallons of oil for full round trip. Fuel is taken 1/4 gallon more in going than coming. What is the fuel consumed in coming up?
Sol Before the trip, car is filled with = 4 ½ gallon of oil
Let ‘X’ be the quantity of fuel consumed for the trip in one direction
The fuel consumed while going = X + ¼
The fuel consumed while coming = X
Therefore, the fuel consumed for the trip = (X + ¼) + X = 4 ½
ð 2X + ¼ = 4 ½ => 2X = 4 ½ - ¼ => 2X = 4 ¼ => X= 2. approx
Therefore the fuel consumed while coming = 2 gallon.
4. Low temperature at the night in a city is 1/3 more than 1/2 high as higher temperature in a day. Sum of the low temperature and highest temp. is 100 degrees. Then what is the low temp?
Sol: 40 deg..
5. A person, who decided to go to weekend trip should not exceed 8 hours driving in a day. Average speed of forward journey is 40 m/h. Due to traffic in Sundays, the return journey average speed is 30 m/h. How far he can select a picnic spot?
a) 120 miles
b) Between 120 and 140 miles
c) 160 miles
Answer: 120 miles.
6. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10mph. Another person was also fined for exceeding the same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was traveling at a speed of 35 mph, find the speed limit.
Sol: Let ‘x’ be the speed limit
Person ‘A’ was fined for exceeding the speed limit by = 10mph
Person ‘B’ was fined for exceeding the speed limit by = twice of ‘A’
= 2*10mph=20mph given that the second person was traveling at the speed of 35mph => 35mph – 20mph = 15mph
Therefore the speed limit is =15 mph.
7.A bus started from bus stand at 8.00am, and after 30 minutes staying at destination, it returned back to the bus stand. The destination is 27 miles from the bus stand. The speed of the bus is 18mph. In return journey bus travels with 50% fast speed. At what time it returns to the bus stand?
Sol: 11.00am.
8.In a mixture, R is 2 parts S is 1 part. In order to make S to 25% of the mixture, how much r is to be added?
Sol: One Part.
9. Wind flows 160 miles in 330 min, for 80 miles how much time required.
Sol:.
10. With 4/5 full tank vehicle travels 12 miles, with 1/3 full tank how much distance travels
Sol: ( 5 miles ).
11. A storm will move with a velocity of towards the center in hours, at the same rate how much far will it move in hrs.
Sol: ( but the answer is 8/3 or 2 2/3 ).
12. In a two-dimensional array, X (9, 7), with each element occupying 4 bytes of memory, with the address of the first element X (1, 1) is 3000; find the address of X (8, 5).
Ans: 3212.
13. In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
Ans:I
14. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit memory?
Ans : 251
15. Select the odd one out…..a. Java b. Lisp c. Smalltalk d. Eiffel.
16. Select the odd one out a. SMTP b. WAP c. SAP d. ARP
17. Select the odd one out a. Oracle b. Linux c. Ingress d. DB2
18. Select the odd one out a. WAP b. HTTP c. BAAN d. ARP
19. Select the odd one out a. LINUX b. UNIX c. SOLARIS d. SQL SEVER
20. Select the odd one out a. SQL b. DB2 c. SYBASE d. HTTP
21. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
Ans: 0.5%(SQRT 101N)
22. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work?
Ans: 16
23. In which of the system, decimal number 184 is equal to 1234?
Ans: 5
24. Find the value of the 678 to the base-7.
Ans: 1656
25. Number of faces, vertices and edges of a cube
Ans: 6 8 12
26. Complete the series 2, 7, 24, 77,__
Ans: 238
27. Find the value of @@+25-++@16, where @ denotes "square" and + denotes "square root".
Ans: 621
28. Find the result of the following expression if, M denotes modulus operation, R denotes round-off, T denotes truncation: M(373,5)+R(3.4)+T(7.7)+R(5.8)
Ans:19
29. If TAFJHH is coded as RBEKGI then RBDJK can be coded as?
Ans: qcckj
30. G(0)= -1, G(1)=1, G(N)=G(N-1) - G(N-2), G(5)= ?
Ans: - 2
31. What is the max possible 3 digit prime number?
Ans: 997
32. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is Rs.15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/-per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
Ans : 1000 (24725-cost)
33. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
Ans:0.5%(SQRT 101N)
34. In Madras , temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much temperature more or less in 4pm to 9pm.
Ans: At 9pm 7.5 more
35. The size of the bucket is N kb. The bucket fills at the rate of 0.1 kb per millisecond. A programmer sends a program to receiver. There it waits for 10 milliseconds. And response will be back to programmer in 20 milliseconds. How much time the program takes to get a response back to the programmer, after it is sent?
Ans: 30
36. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work?
Ans: 16
37. Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?
a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j
Ans: a, c
38. If VXUPLVH is written as SURMISE, what is SHDVD?
Ans: PEASE
39. If A, B and C are the mechanisms used separately to reduce the wastage of fuel by 30%, 20% and 10%.What will be the fuel economy if they were used combined.
Ans: 20%
40. What is the power of 2? a. 2068 b.2048 c.2668
41. Complete the series. 3, 8, --, 24, --, 48, 63.
Ans: 15.35
42. Complete the series. 4, -5, 11, -14, 22, --
Ans: -27
43. A, B and C are 8 bit no's. They are as follows:
A -> 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1
B -> 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0
C -> 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1
Find ((A-B) u C)=? Hint: 109…. A-B is {A} - {A n B}
44. A Flight takes off at 2 A.M from northeast direction and travels for 11 hours to reach the destination, which is in northwest direction. Given the latitude and longitude of source and destination. Find the local time of destination when the flight reaches there?
Ans: 7 am
45. A can copy 50 papers in 10 hours while both A & B can copy 70 papers in 10 hours. Then for how many hours required for B to copy 26 papers?
Ans: 13
46. A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7 days. Then find in how many days, A alone can complete the work?
Ans: 10.5
47. A finish the work in 10 days. B is 60% efficient than A. So how many days do B takes to finish the work?
Ans :100/6
48. A finishes the work in 10 days & B in 8 days individually. If A works for only 6 days then how many days should B work to complete A's work?
Ans: 3.2 days
49. Given the length of the 3 sides of a triangle. Find the one that is impossible? (HINT: sum of smaller 2 sides is greater than the other one, which is larger)
50. Find the singularity matrix from a given set of matrices? (Hint det(A)==0))
51. (Momentum*Velocity)/(Acceleration * distance). Find units.
Ans: mass
52. The number 362 in decimal system is given by (1362) x in the X System of numbers find the value of X a} 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 e) 9
53. Given $ means Tripling and % means change of sign then find the value of $%$6-%$%6
54. My flight takes of at 2am from a place at 18N 10E and landed 10 Hrs later at a place with coordinates 36N70W. What is the local time when my plane landed?
6:00 am b) 6:40am c) 7:40 d) 7:00 e) 8:00
(Hint: Every 1 deg longitude is equal to 4 minutes. If west to east add time else subtract time)
55. 7 8 9 11 13 ?? 19
CRITICAL REASONING:
Entirely from Barron’s 12th edition 5 Model Test Papers at the end. Those who don’t have barrons, you can obtain it from the Internet and get the book in a pdf format. The questions asked are from these…
Model test 1: Section5 - qns 1-4 (motorist), qns 13-16 (red and brown)
Section6 - qns 1-4 ( conservative, democratic), qns 8-11 ( latin, sanskrit ), qns 12-18 (joe,larry,ned), qns 19-22 (a causes b)
Model test 2: Section1 - qns 19-22 (wallachia and rumelia) ---
Section6 - qns 8-12 ( ashland , liverpool), qns 13-16 (spelunker) ---
qns 17-22 (pesth) ---i got this one too
Model test 3: Section6 - qns 1-4 (all Gs are Hs)
Model test 4: Section5 - qns 8-11 (horizontal row), qns 19-22 (a,b,c cause d)
Section6 - qns 8-12 (spanish, italian), qns 13-16 (all As, Bs), qns 17-22 (progressive federal party)
Model test 5: Section3 - qns8-11 (museum), qns 19-22 (A is the father)
Section7- qns 1-5 (prahtu, brahtu), qns 21-25 (scurvy)
TECHNICAL & HR INTERVIEW:
I had both the interviews in one go
being from CS .
me and many of my friends were asked programming like:
*sortings:buble sort , insertion sort , binary search , stack , queue ,linked list
prime numbers ,max min ,gcd ,lcm
they even asked about automata theory :
what is a turing machinenon deterministic autometon??
RDBMS:
Have a clear view of all the normalization
i was asked to prepare a silicon DATABASE.
what is rdbms???
MPMC:
PIN diagrams of 8085 mainly.
diff between 8086 and 8085??
diff between c and c++??
there were some panels were physics ,chemistry ,mechanics were even asked .the fundas only newtons laws boyle's law ,charles law plz have an over all idea .
if u are ANSWERING anything say with 200% confidence .u voice should reflect your certainty.
HR:
Tell me about your self which u have not written in your CV?
Told...
If any beautiful girl from Bit mesra love U very much and U don't know her, what will u do? , will propose her?
Told ......Yes
WHY Tcs??
Told
What is Ur weakness ?
Told..
Ask any question from us...?
Asked
ALL THE BEST ......................
There will be three section
1.English 32 questions 20min
2.Aptitude section 38ques 40 min.
3.critical reasoning 12ques 30min.
Online Written Test...
1.ENGLISH SECTION: PLEASE HAVE A LOOK ON THESE:
We had 10 synonyms and 10 antonyms For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning:
Q No. 1 GARRULOUS
(a) Arid (b) Hasty (c) Sociable (d) Quaint (e) Talkative
Q No. 2 INTER
(a) Bury (b) Amuse (c) Relate (d) Frequent (e) Abandon
Q No. 3 CHIMERICAL
(a) Developing (b) Brief (c) Distant (d) Economical (e) Fantastic
Q No. 4 BROCHURE
(a) Opening (b) Pamphlet (c) Censor (d) Bureau (e) Pin
Q No. 5 EQUANIMITY
(a) Clamour (b) Disparity (c) Composure (d) Propensity (e) Indivisibility
Q No. 6 GALLEON
(a) Liquid measure (b) Ship (c) Armada (d) Company (e) Printer’s proof
Q No. 7 REGAL
(a) Oppressive (b) Royal (c) Major (d) Basic (e) Entertain
Q No. 8 MUSTY
(a) Stale (b) Necessary (c) Indifferent (d) Nonchalant (e) Vivid
Q No. 9 INDIGNITY
(a) Pomposity (b) Bombast (c) Obeisance (d) Insult (e) Message
Q No. 10 CANDID
(a) Vague (b) Outspoken (c) Experience (d) Anxious (e) Sallow
For each of the words in capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:
Q No. 11 REPUDIATE
(a) Hesitant (b) Neutrality (c) Admit (d) Polite (e) Incongruity
Q No. 12 CREDIT
(a) Believe false (b) Treat as equal (c) Make more difficult (d) Underemphasize (e) Irresolute
Q No. 13 TENACIOUS
(a) Fast-running (b) Intention (c) Obnoxious (d) Holding fast (e) Irresolute
Q No. 14 PRECIPITATE
(a) Intricate (b) Devious (c) Posthumous (d) Dilatory (e) Contradictory
Q No. 15 QUIXOTIC
(a) Slow (b) Abstemious (c) Pragmatic (d) Benevolent (e) Grave
Q No. 16 ADMONITION
(a) Premonition (b) Hallucination (c) Escape (d) Commendation (e) Trepidation
Q No. 17 PROCLIVITY
(a) Prodigality (b) Avoidance (c) Credence (d) Calumny (e) Inception
Q No. 18 OMNISCIENCE
(a) Power (b) Extravagance (c) Magnanimity (d) Conscience (e) Ignorance
Q No. 19 PRECIPITIOUS
(a) Cooperative (b) Cautious (c) Inaccurate (d) Formal (e) Simplistic
Q No. 20 PROTRACT
(a) Defy (b) Supplement (c) Postpone (d) Shorten (e) Design
For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning :
Q No. 1 CONTROVERT
(a) Turn over (b) Contradict (c) Mind (d) Explain (e) Swing
Q No. 2 MIRAGE
(a) Dessert (b) Illusion (c) Water (d) Mirror (e) Statement
Q No. 3 INTERDICT
(a) Acclaim (b) Dispute (c) Prohibit (d) Decide (e) Fret
Q No. 4 INCONTINENT
(a) Insular (b) Complaisant (c) Grass (d) Wanton (e) Faults
Q No. 5 GADFLY
(a) Humourist (b) Nuisance (c) Scholar (d) Bum (e) Thief
Q No. 6 DECIMATE
(a) Kill (b) Disgrace (c) Search (d) Collide (e) Deride
Q No. 7 MESMERIZE
(a) Remember (b) Hypnotize (c) Delay (d) Bore (e) Analyze
Q No. 8 SEDATE
(a) Unify (b) Immunize (c) Tranquilize (d) Stimulate (e) Injure
Q No. 9 DECOROUS
(a) momentary (b) Emotional (c) Suppressed (d) Proper (e) Unexpected
Q No. 10 REPUGNANCE
(a) belligerence (b) Tenacity (c) Renewal (d) Pity (e) Loathing
For each of the words in capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:
Q No. 11 TANTAMOUNT
(a) Not negotiable (b) not equivalent (c) Not ambitious (d) Not evident (e) Not relevant
Q No. 12 ABIDE
(a) Retract an offer (b) Refuse to endure (c) Shield from harm (d) Exonerate (e) Welcome
Q No. 13 PROSPEROUS
(a) Disengage (b) Impoverished (c) Refute thoroughly (d) Answer hypothetically (e) Consider genuinely
Q No. 14 VOUCHSAFE
(a) Postpone (b) Dissemble (c) Endanger (d) Prohibit (e) Justify
Q No. 15 CAVIL
(a) Discern (b) Disclose (c) Introduce (d) Flatter (e) Commend
Q No. 16 BOORISH
(a) Juvenile (b) Well mannered (c) Weak minded (d) Unique (e) Concealed
Q No. 17 ANTITHETICAL
(a) Qualitative (b) Unnatural (c) Deceptive (d) Supportive (e) Noncommittal
Q No. 18 REVILE
(a) Compose (b) Awake (c) Deaden (d) Praise (e) Secrete
Q No. 19 DESULTORY
(a) Apologetic (b) Independent (c) Laudatory (d) Questionable (e) Methodical
Q No. 20 ASSUAGE
(a) Wane (b) Belie (c) Worsen (d) Intervene (e) Presume
For each of the words in Capital letters. Choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning :
Q No. 1 CLEFT
(a) Split (b) Waterfall (c) Assembly (d) Adherence (e) Surplus
Q No. 2 ISOTROPIC
(a) Feeling cold (b) Being isolated (c) Showing warm (d) Having uniformity (e) Creating wealth
Q No. 3 TAWDRY
(a) Orderly (b) Meretricious (c) Reclaimed (d) Filtered (e) Proper
Q No. 4 FURTIVE
(a) Underhanded (b) Coy (c) Brilliant (d) Quick (e) Abortive
Q No. 5 EQUANIMITY
(a) Clamour (b) Disparity (c) Composure (d) Propensity (e) Indivisibility
Q No. 6 INCRIMINATE
(a) Exacerbate (b) Involve (c) Intimidate (d) Lacerate (e) Prevaricate
Q No. 7 INTREPID
(a) Cold (b) Hot (c) Understood (d) Callow (e) Courageous
Q No. 8 INNOCUOUS
(a) Not capable (b) Not dangerous (c) Not eager (d) Not frank (e) Not peaceful
Q No. 9 TRANSLUCENT
(a) Clear (b) Opaque (c) Movement (d) Efficient (e) Telepathy
Q No. 10 BRACKISH
(a) Careful (b) Salty (c) Chosen (d) Tough (e) Wet
For each of the words in capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:
Q No. 11 COMPLY
(a) Simplify (b) Strive (c) Rebel (d) Unite (e) Appreciate
Q No. 12 RETROSPECTION
(a) Introversion (b) Deliberation (c) Anticipation (d) Gregariousness (e) Equivocation
Q No. 13 HAPLESS
(a) Fortuitous (b) Fortunate (c) Fortifield (d) Forbidden (e) Forestalled
Q No. 14 PRECIPITATE
(a) Intricate (b) Devious (c) posthumous (d) Dilatory (e) Contradictory
Q No. 15 SEDULOUS
(a) Tangential (b) Rampant (c) Esoteric (d) Morose (e) Indolent
Q No. 16 HAMPER
(a) Feed (b) Animate (c) Facilitate (d) Treat lightly (e) Caution tactfully
Q No. 17 URBANE
(a) Civic (b) Remote (c) Deceptive (d) Conventional (e) Naïve
Q No. 18 DISINGEOUS
(a) Naive (b) Accurate (c) Hostile (d) Witty (e) Polite
Q No. 19 TRACTABLE
(a) Incoherent (b) Advisable (c) Simplistic (d) Influential (e) Uncooperative
Q No. 20 PROPITIOUS
(a) Adjacent (b) Clandestine (c) Contentious (d) Unfavourable (e) Coy
2. FILL THE BLANKS:
Observe the dilemma of the fungus; it is a plant, but possesses no chlorophyll. While all other plants put the sun’s energy to work for them combining the nutrients of ground and air into the body structure._____1______.Chlorophyll is found in these other plants which, having received their energy free from the sun, relinquish it__2__.
In this search of energy, the fungus has become the earth’s major source of rot and decay. Wherever you see mould forming on a piece of bread, or a pile of leaves turning to compost, or a bloom down tree becoming pulp on the ground, _____3___.
With fungus action, the earth would be pooled high with_____4______.
In fact, certain plants which contain resins that are ____5_______. Specimen of the redwood tree, for instance can still be found ______6________.
A. You are watching a fungus acting.
B. Resting on the forest floor centuries after having been cut down.
C. Responsible for decomposition of much plant life.
D. Fungus must look elsewhere for an energy supply.
E. Cannot produce their own store of energy.
F. The dead plant life of past centuries.
G. At some point in their cycle either to animal or to fungi.
H. Fungus is vastly different from other plants.
I. Toxic to fungi will last indefinitely.
3.AND A PASSAGE
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE SECTION
1. Two pencils costs 8 cents, then 5 pencils cost how much
Sol: 2 pencils è 8 cents => 1 pencil è 4 cents
Therefore 5 pencils cost = 5 * 4 = 20 cents.
2. A work is done by two people in 24 min. one of them can do this work a lonely in 40 min. how much time required to do the same work for the second person.
Sol: (A+B) can do the work in = 1/24 min.
A alone can do the same work in = 1/40 min.
B alone can do the same work in = (A+B)’s – A’s = 1/24 – 1/40 = 1/60
Therefore, b can do the same work in = 60 min.
3.A car is filled with four and half gallons of oil for full round trip. Fuel is taken 1/4 gallon more in going than coming. What is the fuel consumed in coming up?
Sol Before the trip, car is filled with = 4 ½ gallon of oil
Let ‘X’ be the quantity of fuel consumed for the trip in one direction
The fuel consumed while going = X + ¼
The fuel consumed while coming = X
Therefore, the fuel consumed for the trip = (X + ¼) + X = 4 ½
ð 2X + ¼ = 4 ½ => 2X = 4 ½ - ¼ => 2X = 4 ¼ => X= 2. approx
Therefore the fuel consumed while coming = 2 gallon.
4. Low temperature at the night in a city is 1/3 more than 1/2 high as higher temperature in a day. Sum of the low temperature and highest temp. is 100 degrees. Then what is the low temp?
Sol: 40 deg..
5. A person, who decided to go to weekend trip should not exceed 8 hours driving in a day. Average speed of forward journey is 40 m/h. Due to traffic in Sundays, the return journey average speed is 30 m/h. How far he can select a picnic spot?
a) 120 miles
b) Between 120 and 140 miles
c) 160 miles
Answer: 120 miles.
6. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10mph. Another person was also fined for exceeding the same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was traveling at a speed of 35 mph, find the speed limit.
Sol: Let ‘x’ be the speed limit
Person ‘A’ was fined for exceeding the speed limit by = 10mph
Person ‘B’ was fined for exceeding the speed limit by = twice of ‘A’
= 2*10mph=20mph given that the second person was traveling at the speed of 35mph => 35mph – 20mph = 15mph
Therefore the speed limit is =15 mph.
7.A bus started from bus stand at 8.00am, and after 30 minutes staying at destination, it returned back to the bus stand. The destination is 27 miles from the bus stand. The speed of the bus is 18mph. In return journey bus travels with 50% fast speed. At what time it returns to the bus stand?
Sol: 11.00am.
8.In a mixture, R is 2 parts S is 1 part. In order to make S to 25% of the mixture, how much r is to be added?
Sol: One Part.
9. Wind flows 160 miles in 330 min, for 80 miles how much time required.
Sol:.
10. With 4/5 full tank vehicle travels 12 miles, with 1/3 full tank how much distance travels
Sol: ( 5 miles ).
11. A storm will move with a velocity of towards the center in hours, at the same rate how much far will it move in hrs.
Sol: ( but the answer is 8/3 or 2 2/3 ).
12. In a two-dimensional array, X (9, 7), with each element occupying 4 bytes of memory, with the address of the first element X (1, 1) is 3000; find the address of X (8, 5).
Ans: 3212.
13. In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
Ans:I
14. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit memory?
Ans : 251
15. Select the odd one out…..a. Java b. Lisp c. Smalltalk d. Eiffel.
16. Select the odd one out a. SMTP b. WAP c. SAP d. ARP
17. Select the odd one out a. Oracle b. Linux c. Ingress d. DB2
18. Select the odd one out a. WAP b. HTTP c. BAAN d. ARP
19. Select the odd one out a. LINUX b. UNIX c. SOLARIS d. SQL SEVER
20. Select the odd one out a. SQL b. DB2 c. SYBASE d. HTTP
21. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
Ans: 0.5%(SQRT 101N)
22. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work?
Ans: 16
23. In which of the system, decimal number 184 is equal to 1234?
Ans: 5
24. Find the value of the 678 to the base-7.
Ans: 1656
25. Number of faces, vertices and edges of a cube
Ans: 6 8 12
26. Complete the series 2, 7, 24, 77,__
Ans: 238
27. Find the value of @@+25-++@16, where @ denotes "square" and + denotes "square root".
Ans: 621
28. Find the result of the following expression if, M denotes modulus operation, R denotes round-off, T denotes truncation: M(373,5)+R(3.4)+T(7.7)+R(5.8)
Ans:19
29. If TAFJHH is coded as RBEKGI then RBDJK can be coded as?
Ans: qcckj
30. G(0)= -1, G(1)=1, G(N)=G(N-1) - G(N-2), G(5)= ?
Ans: - 2
31. What is the max possible 3 digit prime number?
Ans: 997
32. A power unit is there by the bank of the river of 750 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power plant opposite to that of the river and 1500mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is Rs.15/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.12/-per meter. Find the total of laying the cable.
Ans : 1000 (24725-cost)
33. The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
Ans:0.5%(SQRT 101N)
34. In Madras , temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much temperature more or less in 4pm to 9pm.
Ans: At 9pm 7.5 more
35. The size of the bucket is N kb. The bucket fills at the rate of 0.1 kb per millisecond. A programmer sends a program to receiver. There it waits for 10 milliseconds. And response will be back to programmer in 20 milliseconds. How much time the program takes to get a response back to the programmer, after it is sent?
Ans: 30
36. A man, a woman, and a child can do a piece of work in 6 days. Man only can do it in 24 days. Woman can do it in 16 days and in how many days child can do the same work?
Ans: 16
37. Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?
a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j
Ans: a, c
38. If VXUPLVH is written as SURMISE, what is SHDVD?
Ans: PEASE
39. If A, B and C are the mechanisms used separately to reduce the wastage of fuel by 30%, 20% and 10%.What will be the fuel economy if they were used combined.
Ans: 20%
40. What is the power of 2? a. 2068 b.2048 c.2668
41. Complete the series. 3, 8, --, 24, --, 48, 63.
Ans: 15.35
42. Complete the series. 4, -5, 11, -14, 22, --
Ans: -27
43. A, B and C are 8 bit no's. They are as follows:
A -> 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1
B -> 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0
C -> 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1
Find ((A-B) u C)=? Hint: 109…. A-B is {A} - {A n B}
44. A Flight takes off at 2 A.M from northeast direction and travels for 11 hours to reach the destination, which is in northwest direction. Given the latitude and longitude of source and destination. Find the local time of destination when the flight reaches there?
Ans: 7 am
45. A can copy 50 papers in 10 hours while both A & B can copy 70 papers in 10 hours. Then for how many hours required for B to copy 26 papers?
Ans: 13
46. A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7 days. Then find in how many days, A alone can complete the work?
Ans: 10.5
47. A finish the work in 10 days. B is 60% efficient than A. So how many days do B takes to finish the work?
Ans :100/6
48. A finishes the work in 10 days & B in 8 days individually. If A works for only 6 days then how many days should B work to complete A's work?
Ans: 3.2 days
49. Given the length of the 3 sides of a triangle. Find the one that is impossible? (HINT: sum of smaller 2 sides is greater than the other one, which is larger)
50. Find the singularity matrix from a given set of matrices? (Hint det(A)==0))
51. (Momentum*Velocity)/(Acceleration * distance). Find units.
Ans: mass
52. The number 362 in decimal system is given by (1362) x in the X System of numbers find the value of X a} 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 e) 9
53. Given $ means Tripling and % means change of sign then find the value of $%$6-%$%6
54. My flight takes of at 2am from a place at 18N 10E and landed 10 Hrs later at a place with coordinates 36N70W. What is the local time when my plane landed?
6:00 am b) 6:40am c) 7:40 d) 7:00 e) 8:00
(Hint: Every 1 deg longitude is equal to 4 minutes. If west to east add time else subtract time)
55. 7 8 9 11 13 ?? 19
CRITICAL REASONING:
Entirely from Barron’s 12th edition 5 Model Test Papers at the end. Those who don’t have barrons, you can obtain it from the Internet and get the book in a pdf format. The questions asked are from these…
Model test 1: Section5 - qns 1-4 (motorist), qns 13-16 (red and brown)
Section6 - qns 1-4 ( conservative, democratic), qns 8-11 ( latin, sanskrit ), qns 12-18 (joe,larry,ned), qns 19-22 (a causes b)
Model test 2: Section1 - qns 19-22 (wallachia and rumelia) ---
Section6 - qns 8-12 ( ashland , liverpool), qns 13-16 (spelunker) ---
qns 17-22 (pesth) ---i got this one too
Model test 3: Section6 - qns 1-4 (all Gs are Hs)
Model test 4: Section5 - qns 8-11 (horizontal row), qns 19-22 (a,b,c cause d)
Section6 - qns 8-12 (spanish, italian), qns 13-16 (all As, Bs), qns 17-22 (progressive federal party)
Model test 5: Section3 - qns8-11 (museum), qns 19-22 (A is the father)
Section7- qns 1-5 (prahtu, brahtu), qns 21-25 (scurvy)
TECHNICAL & HR INTERVIEW:
I had both the interviews in one go
being from CS .
me and many of my friends were asked programming like:
*sortings:buble sort , insertion sort , binary search , stack , queue ,linked list
prime numbers ,max min ,gcd ,lcm
they even asked about automata theory :
what is a turing machinenon deterministic autometon??
RDBMS:
Have a clear view of all the normalization
i was asked to prepare a silicon DATABASE.
what is rdbms???
MPMC:
PIN diagrams of 8085 mainly.
diff between 8086 and 8085??
diff between c and c++??
there were some panels were physics ,chemistry ,mechanics were even asked .the fundas only newtons laws boyle's law ,charles law plz have an over all idea .
if u are ANSWERING anything say with 200% confidence .u voice should reflect your certainty.
HR:
Tell me about your self which u have not written in your CV?
Told...
If any beautiful girl from Bit mesra love U very much and U don't know her, what will u do? , will propose her?
Told ......Yes
WHY Tcs??
Told
What is Ur weakness ?
Told..
Ask any question from us...?
Asked
ALL THE BEST ......................
TCS PAPER ON 17th JULY 2008 SCSVMV Kancheepuram
TEST PHASES:
ONLINE TEST
TECHNICAL ROUND(HR ROUND)
MR ROUND
ONLINE TEST:
Verbal Section.
Quantitative Aptitude.
Critical Reasoning.
Verbal Section(32 questions in 20 min):
10 Synonyms
10 Antonyms
6 Sentence Completion
6 RC
For Synonyms practice all Word List exercises of GRE BARRON-12th Edition with heading Synonyms.No need to mugup the meaning of all words.You just keep the true option of respective word in mind because the words wih options are just copied in question paper.So if you have previously seen a particular word then u can resemble it in exam and can choose correct option.
For Antonyms practice all Word List excercises and Model Test Paper(given back side of GRE Barron-12th Edition) of GRE Barron-12th .If you practice only Model Test Paper’s Antonyms then you can answer 6 ques out of 10 during test.
NOTE: you skip words with heading “Synonyms and Antonyms” given in Word List excercises. Sentence Completion are also from GRE Barron but it in the form of a paragraph with combination of 5 or 6 sentences. If u have time, practice it otherwise skip it.
RC is from GRE Barron-12th .Practice all Model Test Paper’s RC if you have time.
Quantitative Aptitude(38 ques in 40 min):
Note: For this section there is no need to solve any book you just solve as many questions of previous years as possible.All ques are either repeated or data is changed. Therefore you must know the methods to solve those questions,it will help you if you forget the mugup answer or if data is changed.
Here I m posting some questions which were asked to me
G(0)= -1, G(1)=1, G(N)=G(N-1) - G(N-2), G(5)= ?
Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?
a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j
Find the singularity matrix from a given set of matrices? (Hint det(A)==0)) In a two-dimensional array, X(9,7), with each element occupying 8 bytes of memory, with the address of the first element X(1,1) is 3000, find the address of X(8,5)?
A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. Each bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per millisecond. The transmission time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
If n=10*18*38 which of the following is not an integer? a. n/40 b. n/90 c. n/72 d. n/35
My flight takes of at 2 am from a place at 18N 40E and landed 10 HRS later at a place with co-ordinates 36N 40W.WHAT IS THE LOCAL TIME WHEN MY PLANE LANDED.
a) 2.50 pm,b)6.00 pm, c) 6.40 pm,d)8.00 pm Two pencils costs 8 cents, then 5 pencils cost how much.
A car is filled with four and half gallons of oil for full round trip. Fuel is taken 1/4 gallon more in going than coming. What is the fuel consumed in coming up?
In a mixture, R is 2 parts S is 1 part. In order to make S to 25% of the mixture, how much r is to be added?
In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
Select the odd one out…..a. Java b. Lisp c. Smalltalk d. Eiffel.
Select the odd one out a. WAP b. HTTP c. BAAN d. ARP.
Select the odd one out a. SQL b. DB2 c. SYBASE d. HTTP.
The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
Find the result of the following expression if, M denotes modulus operation, R denotes round-off, T denotes truncation: M(373,5)+R(3.4)+T(7.7)+R(5.8).
In Madras , temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much temperature more or less in 6pm to 9pm.
A, B and C are 8 bit no's. They are as follows:
A -> 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1
B -> 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0
C -> 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1
Find ((A-B) u C)=?
(Energy*Mass)/(Acceleration * distance). Find units.
@@+25-++@16, where @ denotes ”square” & + denotes “square root”.
A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7days. Then find in how many days A alone can complete the work?
What curve best suits the following data:
X Y
0.99 0.00001
10.04 1.02
99.98 1.997
1000 3.0
9990 4.004
(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex
Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated for power saving in a plant producing respectively 30%, 40% and 10% efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net power efficiency achieved.
(a) 62.2% (b) 68% (c) 61% (d) 64% (e) 56%
One year ago Pandit was three times his sister's age. He will be only twice her age next year. How old will Pandit be after five years?
a) 8 b) 12 c) 11 d) 13
One ques on coding and decoding(I forget it out).
In the given string how many Y’s are followed by L that are not followed by P YLYPQMYLPMLYLLYQMYYLQYLPLYAMLYLM Sol. Only count pairs of YL and discard pairs of YLP.
Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?
(a) 7, 0, -7, 7, 0, -7 (b) 7, 7, 7, 0, 7, 7 (c) -7, -7, -7, -7, -7, -7 (d) 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7 (e) 7, -7, 7, -7, 7, -7
A power cable is run by the bank of the river of 900 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power a plant opposite to that of the river and 3000mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is Rs. 5/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.4/- per meter. Find the point downstream where the cable is to cut across the river.
Three ques on data interpretation (u can prepare it from R.S Aggarwal or GRE itself).
Three ques from Venn diagram (u can prepare it from R.S Aggarwal or GRE itself).
One ques was from series completion (I forget it out).
Critical Reasoning (3 problems each with 4 ques (total 12 ques) in 30 mins):
For this section you just practice all Model Test Paper’s reasoning problems(practice only those problems which include 4 or more than 4 ques). All problems are just copied and paste.Sometime they change names but situation of problems are same.
Following are problems asked to me:-
GRE Barron 12th Edition -> MODEL TEST 2 -> Section 1 ->questions(19-22).
GRE Barron 12th Edition -> MODEL TEST 2 -> Section 6 ->questions(17-22).(the names were changed for this problem).
GRE Barron 12th Edition -> MODEL TEST 5 -> Section 3 ->questions(12-18).
TECHNICAL ROUND (HR ROUND): (only one interviewr)
(I opened the door and asked permission to get inside.I wished good afternoon after reaching near to him.He was engage with some papers so he told me to sit on side chair and wait for a while.I waited for 5 mins while sitting gently.After 5 mins he told me sit on the chair infront of him.)
Sir: Mr. Niraj no need to get tense and nervous,we will talk like friend…………
Me: ok sir.
Sir: do u feel hungary.
Me: little bit sir but its not important than my interview.
Sir: Inspite of feeling hungary u are smiling.good.ok Niraj tell me about ur schooling and family.
Me: I told……
Sir: Niraj you have two years academic gap afer +2.why it is so?
Me: (I already thought answer of this question.). Sir it is due to economical problem.My father is a low earning person.He has to manage a family of six members.When I passed +2,at that time my eldest brother was doing MBA and my elder brother was doing B.tec.So he could not afford me for B.E at that time.
Sir: what u did for 2 years?
Me: sir I was doing B.sc
Sir: Have u completed your B.sc?
Me: no sir.
Sir: why?
Me: sir I already decided to do B.E but I did’t want to waste the time so for a time being I had taken admission in B.sc. After two years both of my brothers got job and hence I taken admission in B.E.
Sir: What was your hons. Paper?
Me: sir it was Maths.
Sir: Which is your favourite subject?
Me: sir C++,Data Structure and java( I have written these subjects as Area of Interest in my Resume).
Sir: what are features of oops?
Me: told but I forget two features.
Sir: any thing else
Me: I remembered and told those two also.
Sir: Is pointer there in C++?
Me: Yes sir (for checking confidence he asked this ques three times but my answer was same for all times).
Sir: Can u write a programe in C++ by using pointer
Me: Yes sir. (Then he gave me to display sum of series [1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 + …….+ 10^2].I thought for 30 sec on this problem then I was just starting but he interrupted me that if u are not comfortable with pointer you can write it without pointer). I wrote the programe without pointer.
Sir: Can you explain it?
Me: Yes sir. ( I explained very well.)
Sir: you did Sanskrit project by “java coding” .what is it?
Me: Sir actually in our college we have to study a subject “Sanskrit and Indian Culture”.In 6th sem we had to do a project related to this subject.So to brush up my knowledge of java I did it by using “java coding”.
Sir: Can u explain what u did in project?
Me: Yes sir. (I explained it for 15 mins).
Note: In my project I used a GUI component “Combo Box” but during explanation i was telling it “Check Box”.So he interrupted me and drawn two figures-one for Check Box and other for Combo Box and told me to identify them.Now I felt mistake and oppolizes to him.He told “ok no problem proceed”.
Sir: why u haven’t used “Visual Basic” for GUI.
Me: sir I doesn’t comfortable with Visual Basic coding.
Sir: Have you used any Data Base in this project?
Me: No sir.
Sir: Can you write programe for “Binary Search”? (I have written Data Structure as area of interest).
Me: Ofcourse sir. (I thought for a while and started to write.During writing he was asking following questions.Actually he was looking for efficiency of me during work load.)
Sir: How u compare your college with other colleges?
Me: I told……then engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.Actually he was checking my patient.)
Sir: Whether there is need for any improvement of ur college? What are they?
Me: I told…….then engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.)
Sir: Where do you stay? In hostle or outside the hostle.
Me: sir outside the hostle……..then engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.)
Sir: Do you cook yourself?
Me: Yes sir……….then engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.)
Sir: What you cook for a day?
Me: I told……… engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.)
Sir: Do u know to cook Chapati?
Me: yes sir very well………then engaged in writing programe. (Now he stoped to ask questions and busy with his Mobile.After few mins I completed programe writing and show it to him.)
Sir: Can you explain it?
Me: ofcourse sir.(I explained very well but I did a minor mistake during writing of programe.This was notified by him. I oppolizes for that).
Sir: what are other Concepts in Data Structure?
Me: sir array,stack, queue, linked list, sorting and tree.
Sir: Any quaries?
Me: sir whether I need to learn any computer language or technology before joining TCS?
Sir: he explained and then said u can go now.
Me: Thank you sir.
MR ROUND: (3 interviewers)
( I opened the door and asked permission to enter inside.Intially there were two members in pannel but in the mid of my interview one lady joined the pannel.I wished good afternoon to all of them.Then they told me to have the seat).
Sir: I think u feel very hungary.have u taken breakfast or not?
Me: (with smile on face) no sir I have not taken breakfast.sir little bit I feel hungary but I am more eager to know final result than lunch.
Sir: which pgm u was given to write? (Actually the paper on which I had written programe in technical round was passed to MR ROUND).
Me: I told….
Sir: which is your favourite subject?
Me: same answer……(lady member entered and joined the pannel.I stood up and wished her good afternoon.She told ok ok sit sit sit)
Sir: I think you have academic break down.(he engaged in seeing my certificates carefully)
Me: yes sir I have two years academic break down between +2 and B.E.
Sir: why?
Me: Given same reason.
Sir: what you was doing for 2 years?
Me: Doing B.sc.
Mam: Do u have Certificate for B.sc?
Me: No mam I don’t have Certificate because it is incomplete degree but I have the marksheets of two years.
Mam: are you sure you have the marksheets?
Me: Mam not now because it was a incomplete coarse so I haven’t included in my file.But I have it at room.
Mam: Why u did not completed B.sc coarse?
Me: Mam actually I was not interested in B.sc.From the beginning itself I decided to do B.E. I didn’t want to waste time that’s why I had taken admission in B.sc.
Mam: I think you did mini project in java.Can you explain what u did in this project?
Me: yes mam.(I explained the project very well.here I didn’t repeat the mistake which I did during technical round)
Sir: What is try,catch and finally?
Me: Explained all three.
Sir: You are given two numbers a=5 and b=8.Can you swap two numbers without using temperory veriable?
Me: Thought for sometime but unable to answer.(ANS: a=a+b;b=a-b;a=a-b)
Sir: Give logic for the programe [1-2+3-4+5-6+…………….-8+9].
Me: Thought for some times and find out the answer.
Sum=0;
For (i=1;i<=9;i++) { Sum=Sum+i*pow(-1,i-1); } Printf(“Sum=%d”,Sum); Sir: very good.your logic is correct but I want some simple logic. Me: Again tried for some time for did not got other logic.I simply told sorry sir I m not getting.(the other logic is add odd terms together and even terms together and finally subtract sum of even terms from sum of odd terms.) Sir: Are u comfortable to work in any part of world? Me: Of course Sir.you can throw me at any corner of world,I will adjust myself. (mam laughed at this reply.) Mam: Do you know about 2 years bond of TCS. Me: No mam. Mam: You would have to pay Rs 50,000 if u leave the company within 2 years. Me: ok mam but this situation will not come. Sir: Any queries? Me: I asked the same quary. All the Best
ONLINE TEST
TECHNICAL ROUND(HR ROUND)
MR ROUND
ONLINE TEST:
Verbal Section.
Quantitative Aptitude.
Critical Reasoning.
Verbal Section(32 questions in 20 min):
10 Synonyms
10 Antonyms
6 Sentence Completion
6 RC
For Synonyms practice all Word List exercises of GRE BARRON-12th Edition with heading Synonyms.No need to mugup the meaning of all words.You just keep the true option of respective word in mind because the words wih options are just copied in question paper.So if you have previously seen a particular word then u can resemble it in exam and can choose correct option.
For Antonyms practice all Word List excercises and Model Test Paper(given back side of GRE Barron-12th Edition) of GRE Barron-12th .If you practice only Model Test Paper’s Antonyms then you can answer 6 ques out of 10 during test.
NOTE: you skip words with heading “Synonyms and Antonyms” given in Word List excercises. Sentence Completion are also from GRE Barron but it in the form of a paragraph with combination of 5 or 6 sentences. If u have time, practice it otherwise skip it.
RC is from GRE Barron-12th .Practice all Model Test Paper’s RC if you have time.
Quantitative Aptitude(38 ques in 40 min):
Note: For this section there is no need to solve any book you just solve as many questions of previous years as possible.All ques are either repeated or data is changed. Therefore you must know the methods to solve those questions,it will help you if you forget the mugup answer or if data is changed.
Here I m posting some questions which were asked to me
G(0)= -1, G(1)=1, G(N)=G(N-1) - G(N-2), G(5)= ?
Which of the following are orthogonal pairs?
a. 3i+2j b. i+j c. 2i-3j d. -7i+j
Find the singularity matrix from a given set of matrices? (Hint det(A)==0)) In a two-dimensional array, X(9,7), with each element occupying 8 bytes of memory, with the address of the first element X(1,1) is 3000, find the address of X(8,5)?
A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. Each bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per millisecond. The transmission time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
If n=10*18*38 which of the following is not an integer? a. n/40 b. n/90 c. n/72 d. n/35
My flight takes of at 2 am from a place at 18N 40E and landed 10 HRS later at a place with co-ordinates 36N 40W.WHAT IS THE LOCAL TIME WHEN MY PLANE LANDED.
a) 2.50 pm,b)6.00 pm, c) 6.40 pm,d)8.00 pm Two pencils costs 8 cents, then 5 pencils cost how much.
A car is filled with four and half gallons of oil for full round trip. Fuel is taken 1/4 gallon more in going than coming. What is the fuel consumed in coming up?
In a mixture, R is 2 parts S is 1 part. In order to make S to 25% of the mixture, how much r is to be added?
In the word ORGANISATIONAL, if the first and second, third and forth, forth and fifth, fifth and sixth words are interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the tenth letter from right?
Select the odd one out…..a. Java b. Lisp c. Smalltalk d. Eiffel.
Select the odd one out a. WAP b. HTTP c. BAAN d. ARP.
Select the odd one out a. SQL b. DB2 c. SYBASE d. HTTP.
The size of a program is N. And the memory occupied by the program is given by M = square root of 100N. If the size of the program is increased by 1% then how much memory now occupied?
Find the result of the following expression if, M denotes modulus operation, R denotes round-off, T denotes truncation: M(373,5)+R(3.4)+T(7.7)+R(5.8).
In Madras , temperature at noon varies according to -t^2/2 + 8t + 3, where t is elapsed time. Find how much temperature more or less in 6pm to 9pm.
A, B and C are 8 bit no's. They are as follows:
A -> 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1
B -> 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0
C -> 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1
Find ((A-B) u C)=?
(Energy*Mass)/(Acceleration * distance). Find units.
@@+25-++@16, where @ denotes ”square” & + denotes “square root”.
A is twice efficient than B. A and B can both work together to complete a work in 7days. Then find in how many days A alone can complete the work?
What curve best suits the following data:
X Y
0.99 0.00001
10.04 1.02
99.98 1.997
1000 3.0
9990 4.004
(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex
Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated for power saving in a plant producing respectively 30%, 40% and 10% efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net power efficiency achieved.
(a) 62.2% (b) 68% (c) 61% (d) 64% (e) 56%
One year ago Pandit was three times his sister's age. He will be only twice her age next year. How old will Pandit be after five years?
a) 8 b) 12 c) 11 d) 13
One ques on coding and decoding(I forget it out).
In the given string how many Y’s are followed by L that are not followed by P YLYPQMYLPMLYLLYQMYYLQYLPLYAMLYLM Sol. Only count pairs of YL and discard pairs of YLP.
Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?
(a) 7, 0, -7, 7, 0, -7 (b) 7, 7, 7, 0, 7, 7 (c) -7, -7, -7, -7, -7, -7 (d) 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7 (e) 7, -7, 7, -7, 7, -7
A power cable is run by the bank of the river of 900 meters width. A cable is made from power unit to power a plant opposite to that of the river and 3000mts away from the power unit. The cost of the cable below water is Rs. 5/- per meter and cost of cable on the bank is Rs.4/- per meter. Find the point downstream where the cable is to cut across the river.
Three ques on data interpretation (u can prepare it from R.S Aggarwal or GRE itself).
Three ques from Venn diagram (u can prepare it from R.S Aggarwal or GRE itself).
One ques was from series completion (I forget it out).
Critical Reasoning (3 problems each with 4 ques (total 12 ques) in 30 mins):
For this section you just practice all Model Test Paper’s reasoning problems(practice only those problems which include 4 or more than 4 ques). All problems are just copied and paste.Sometime they change names but situation of problems are same.
Following are problems asked to me:-
GRE Barron 12th Edition -> MODEL TEST 2 -> Section 1 ->questions(19-22).
GRE Barron 12th Edition -> MODEL TEST 2 -> Section 6 ->questions(17-22).(the names were changed for this problem).
GRE Barron 12th Edition -> MODEL TEST 5 -> Section 3 ->questions(12-18).
TECHNICAL ROUND (HR ROUND): (only one interviewr)
(I opened the door and asked permission to get inside.I wished good afternoon after reaching near to him.He was engage with some papers so he told me to sit on side chair and wait for a while.I waited for 5 mins while sitting gently.After 5 mins he told me sit on the chair infront of him.)
Sir: Mr. Niraj no need to get tense and nervous,we will talk like friend…………
Me: ok sir.
Sir: do u feel hungary.
Me: little bit sir but its not important than my interview.
Sir: Inspite of feeling hungary u are smiling.good.ok Niraj tell me about ur schooling and family.
Me: I told……
Sir: Niraj you have two years academic gap afer +2.why it is so?
Me: (I already thought answer of this question.). Sir it is due to economical problem.My father is a low earning person.He has to manage a family of six members.When I passed +2,at that time my eldest brother was doing MBA and my elder brother was doing B.tec.So he could not afford me for B.E at that time.
Sir: what u did for 2 years?
Me: sir I was doing B.sc
Sir: Have u completed your B.sc?
Me: no sir.
Sir: why?
Me: sir I already decided to do B.E but I did’t want to waste the time so for a time being I had taken admission in B.sc. After two years both of my brothers got job and hence I taken admission in B.E.
Sir: What was your hons. Paper?
Me: sir it was Maths.
Sir: Which is your favourite subject?
Me: sir C++,Data Structure and java( I have written these subjects as Area of Interest in my Resume).
Sir: what are features of oops?
Me: told but I forget two features.
Sir: any thing else
Me: I remembered and told those two also.
Sir: Is pointer there in C++?
Me: Yes sir (for checking confidence he asked this ques three times but my answer was same for all times).
Sir: Can u write a programe in C++ by using pointer
Me: Yes sir. (Then he gave me to display sum of series [1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 + …….+ 10^2].I thought for 30 sec on this problem then I was just starting but he interrupted me that if u are not comfortable with pointer you can write it without pointer). I wrote the programe without pointer.
Sir: Can you explain it?
Me: Yes sir. ( I explained very well.)
Sir: you did Sanskrit project by “java coding” .what is it?
Me: Sir actually in our college we have to study a subject “Sanskrit and Indian Culture”.In 6th sem we had to do a project related to this subject.So to brush up my knowledge of java I did it by using “java coding”.
Sir: Can u explain what u did in project?
Me: Yes sir. (I explained it for 15 mins).
Note: In my project I used a GUI component “Combo Box” but during explanation i was telling it “Check Box”.So he interrupted me and drawn two figures-one for Check Box and other for Combo Box and told me to identify them.Now I felt mistake and oppolizes to him.He told “ok no problem proceed”.
Sir: why u haven’t used “Visual Basic” for GUI.
Me: sir I doesn’t comfortable with Visual Basic coding.
Sir: Have you used any Data Base in this project?
Me: No sir.
Sir: Can you write programe for “Binary Search”? (I have written Data Structure as area of interest).
Me: Ofcourse sir. (I thought for a while and started to write.During writing he was asking following questions.Actually he was looking for efficiency of me during work load.)
Sir: How u compare your college with other colleges?
Me: I told……then engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.Actually he was checking my patient.)
Sir: Whether there is need for any improvement of ur college? What are they?
Me: I told…….then engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.)
Sir: Where do you stay? In hostle or outside the hostle.
Me: sir outside the hostle……..then engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.)
Sir: Do you cook yourself?
Me: Yes sir……….then engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.)
Sir: What you cook for a day?
Me: I told……… engaged in writing programe. (During my reply he was busy with his Mobile.)
Sir: Do u know to cook Chapati?
Me: yes sir very well………then engaged in writing programe. (Now he stoped to ask questions and busy with his Mobile.After few mins I completed programe writing and show it to him.)
Sir: Can you explain it?
Me: ofcourse sir.(I explained very well but I did a minor mistake during writing of programe.This was notified by him. I oppolizes for that).
Sir: what are other Concepts in Data Structure?
Me: sir array,stack, queue, linked list, sorting and tree.
Sir: Any quaries?
Me: sir whether I need to learn any computer language or technology before joining TCS?
Sir: he explained and then said u can go now.
Me: Thank you sir.
MR ROUND: (3 interviewers)
( I opened the door and asked permission to enter inside.Intially there were two members in pannel but in the mid of my interview one lady joined the pannel.I wished good afternoon to all of them.Then they told me to have the seat).
Sir: I think u feel very hungary.have u taken breakfast or not?
Me: (with smile on face) no sir I have not taken breakfast.sir little bit I feel hungary but I am more eager to know final result than lunch.
Sir: which pgm u was given to write? (Actually the paper on which I had written programe in technical round was passed to MR ROUND).
Me: I told….
Sir: which is your favourite subject?
Me: same answer……(lady member entered and joined the pannel.I stood up and wished her good afternoon.She told ok ok sit sit sit)
Sir: I think you have academic break down.(he engaged in seeing my certificates carefully)
Me: yes sir I have two years academic break down between +2 and B.E.
Sir: why?
Me: Given same reason.
Sir: what you was doing for 2 years?
Me: Doing B.sc.
Mam: Do u have Certificate for B.sc?
Me: No mam I don’t have Certificate because it is incomplete degree but I have the marksheets of two years.
Mam: are you sure you have the marksheets?
Me: Mam not now because it was a incomplete coarse so I haven’t included in my file.But I have it at room.
Mam: Why u did not completed B.sc coarse?
Me: Mam actually I was not interested in B.sc.From the beginning itself I decided to do B.E. I didn’t want to waste time that’s why I had taken admission in B.sc.
Mam: I think you did mini project in java.Can you explain what u did in this project?
Me: yes mam.(I explained the project very well.here I didn’t repeat the mistake which I did during technical round)
Sir: What is try,catch and finally?
Me: Explained all three.
Sir: You are given two numbers a=5 and b=8.Can you swap two numbers without using temperory veriable?
Me: Thought for sometime but unable to answer.(ANS: a=a+b;b=a-b;a=a-b)
Sir: Give logic for the programe [1-2+3-4+5-6+…………….-8+9].
Me: Thought for some times and find out the answer.
Sum=0;
For (i=1;i<=9;i++) { Sum=Sum+i*pow(-1,i-1); } Printf(“Sum=%d”,Sum); Sir: very good.your logic is correct but I want some simple logic. Me: Again tried for some time for did not got other logic.I simply told sorry sir I m not getting.(the other logic is add odd terms together and even terms together and finally subtract sum of even terms from sum of odd terms.) Sir: Are u comfortable to work in any part of world? Me: Of course Sir.you can throw me at any corner of world,I will adjust myself. (mam laughed at this reply.) Mam: Do you know about 2 years bond of TCS. Me: No mam. Mam: You would have to pay Rs 50,000 if u leave the company within 2 years. Me: ok mam but this situation will not come. Sir: Any queries? Me: I asked the same quary. All the Best
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